Most important basic Physics MCQs for all classes and test preparation online.

Basic Physics MCQs

Area under the curve of velocity-time graph gives:

A. Displacement 
B. Force
C. Acceleration
D. Momentum

If the velocity-time graph gives a parabolic curve then body posses:

A. Variable acceleration
B. Constant acceleration
C. Zero acceleration
D. All of these

The slope of velocity-time graph gives:

A. Speed
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. All of these

When average and instantaneous velocities become equal then body possess:

A. Uniform Velocity
B. Variable Velocity
C. Uniform Acceleration
D. Variable Acceleration

If the distance-time graph gives a straight line then body possesses:

A. Zero Velocity
B. Uniform Velocity
C. Variable Velocity
D. None

The ratio of displacement to distance can not be:

A. Equal to one
B. Less than one
C. Greater than one
D. All are possible

Newton’s first law of motion is valid in:

A. Accelerated frame of reference
B. Inertial frame of reference 
C. Non-inertial frame of reference
D. None

Speed of a body can not be:

A. Zero
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. None

Which of the following is reverse process of composition of vectors:

A. Addition of vectors
B. Subtraction of vectors
C. Multiplication of vectors
D. Resolution of vectors

If a vector Ā is making an angle “∅” with positive y-axis then which of the following is correct:

A. Ax= ACos∅
B. Ay= ASin∅
C. Ay= ACos∅
D. None

Addition of vectors obeys_____ law:

A. Commutative Law
B. Associative Law
C. Distributive Law
D. All of these

Which of the following group of forces can produce equilibrium:

A. 12N, 5N, 20N
B. 4N ,2N, 10N
C. 10N, 18N
D. 12N, 5N, 15N

Angle between the rectangular components of a vector is:

A. Zero
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 90

What is the minimum number of unequal magnitude vectors required to get a null vector:

A. Zero
B. Two
C. Three
D. None

Which of the following pair of forces can produce a resultant of 8N:

A. 2N & 5N
B. 20N & 2N
C. 3N & 6N
D. 4N & 1N

Which of the following can not be the resultant of two vectors having magnitude 10N and 15N:

A. 18N
B. 22N
C. 25N
D. 30N

The vector A= 2i^+2j^ makes_______ angle with x-axis:

A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°

For what value of “a” , the magnitude of a vector A= 2i^+j^+ak^ should be 3:

A. -2
B. 2
C. 4
D. Both A & B

A vector can have maximum______ components in space:

A. Zero
B. Two
C. Three
D. Infinite

A vector can have maximum_____ components in a plane:

A. Zero
B. Two
C. Three
D. Infinite

The mass of Platinum cylinder kept near Paris is:

A. 1 gram
B. 1 Kg
C. 100 Kg
D. None

A train is moving with a speed of 100mph. What will be its speed in m/s:

A. 45 m/s
B. 90 m/s
C. 100 m/s
D. 120 m/s

Which of the following is not a unit of length:

A. light year
B. radian
C. angstrom
D. micron

Study of sound is called:

A. Soundlogy
B. Acoustics
C. Neurology
D. Physiology

Inertia is depends upon only:

A. Velocity
B. Direction
C. Mass
D. Time

Unit vector is used to specify the:

A. Magnitude
B. Velocity
C. Direction of vector
D. Frequency

Product of wavelength and time period is:

A. Frequency
B. Velocity
C. Time period
D. Wavelength

Product of time period and frequency is:

A. Time period
B. Frequency
C. Unity
D. Velocity

Which of the following is path funtion:

A. Internal energy
B. work and heat
C. Enthalpy
D. Entropy

The process in which no heat enters or leave the system known as:

A. Isochoric
B. Isobaric
C. adiabatic
D. Isothermal

Which one of the following of glass can cut ultraviolet rays:

A. Jena Glass
B. Soda Glass
C. Pyrex Glass
D. Crookes Glass

Optics does not deal with:

A. Nature of light waves
B. Properties of light
C. Characteristics of sound 
D. Lenses and mirrors

The anti-matter is composed of:

A. Anti-electrons
B. Anti-proton
C. Anti-neutron
D. All of these 

Power of a lens is one dioptre if its focal length is:

A. 1 meter
B. 2 meter
C. ½ meter
D. ¼ meter

Which of the following is a good moderator:

A. Helium
B. Cadmium
C. Graphite
D. Ordinary Water

Intensity level of threshold of pain is:

A. 60 db
B. 80 db
C. 100 db
D. 120 db

Value of ‘g’ at the surface of moon is:

A. 6ge
B. ge/6
C. 2ge
D. Zero

The co efficient of linear expansion is equal to:

A. ΔL = αLΔT
B. ΔL/LΔT
C. LΔT/ΔL
D. αLΔT-Δ

Ceramic magnets are:

A. Semiconductors
B. Insulators
C. Conductors
D. None of these

The reverse of LED is:

A. Diode
B. Resistor
C. Photodiode
D. Capacitor

The light used in optical fiber transmission is:

A. Dichromatic
B. Monochromatic
C. Pentachromatic
D. None of these

The back emf of a motor which is just started is:

A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Minimum
D. Optimum

If the momentum of an object is increased twice, then what will be the kinetic energy:

A. Twice
B. Thrice
C. Four times 
D. Sixteen times

Field particle of Electromagnetic interaction is:

A. Photon
B. Meson
C. Vector Boson
D. Graviton

Frequency is the inverse of:

A. Velocity
B. Stress
C. Time Period
D. Gravity

Newton’s first law of motion gives the concept of:

A. Energy
B. Work
C. Inertia
D. Momentum

The unit of power is:

A. watt
B. Joule
C. Newton
D. Pascal

Force 100N is applied on a wire produces extension 5mm in it. Energy stored in it is:

A. 0.125 J
B. 0.250 J
C. 0.50 J
D. 1 J

A ____has no size or shape, just position:

A. line
B. bottom
C. point
D. vertex

Neutron was discovered by:

A. Chadwick
B. Rutherford
C. Neil Bohr
D. Einstein

Tesla is the unit for measuring:

A. Magnetic intensity
B. Magnetic moment
C. Magnetic induction
D. None of the above

Mohus scale is used for to measure:

A. Hardness
B. Humidity
C. Pressure
D. Temperatur

The unit of force in CGS, system is:

A. Newton
B. Pound
C. Dyne
D. None of these

Matter itself has energy called:

A. Potential energy
B. Rest energy 
C. Chemical energy
D. Nuclear energy

Kirchhoff’s 2nd rule is related to:

A. IR Drops
B. Battery emf
C. junction voltages
D. both “1” and “2”

The power is the dot product of ___________ quantities:

A. Force and time
B. Force and velocity
C. Force and speed
D. None of these

CGS system of units is also called:

A. Metric system
B. Metric or French system of units
C. Metric or British system of units
D. None of these

A photostat machine works on:

A. electromagnetic image making
B. magnetic image making
C. thermal image making
D. electrostatic image making

The audio signals of TV are:

A. Amplitude modulated
B. Frequency modulated
C. fixe modulated
D. Velocity modulated

Which of the following are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields:

A. Alpha rays
B. Beta rays
C. Gamma rays
D. None of these

The value of acceleration due to gravity is minimum on which of these planets:

A. Mars
B. Jupiter
C. Mercury
D. Neptune

The value of R ( Universal Gas Constant ):

A. 8.314 J/mole K
B. 6.5  J/mole K
C. 1.314 J/mole K
D. 10.314 J/mole K

Mirage is an example of:

A. reflection of light
B. refraction of light
C. Refraction and total internal reflection of light
D. Scattering of light

A Circle has a number of tangents equal to:

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinite

What is unit of conductivity:

A. Ohm
B. Watt
C. mho
D. None of these

In fission process:

A. massive nucleus join together
B. massive nucleus splits to form smaller fragments
C. both A & B
D. None of these

What is the acceleration of free fall on the moon of that on the Earth:

A. 1/6th
B. 1/4th
C. 1/8th
D. None of these

CGS unit of Force is:

A. Newton
B. Erg
C. Dyne
D. Joule

The Capacity of doing work is called:

A. Work
B. Energy
C. Power
D. Momentum

Ohm is a unit of measuring:

A. Resistance
B. Voltage
C. Current
D. None of these

With the increase of pressure, the boiling point of any substance:

A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains same
D. Becomes Zero

Which one of the following has the highest value of specific heat:

A. Water
B. Alcohol
C. Methane
D. Kerosene

Young’s modulus is the property of:

A. Gas only
B. Liquid only
C. Solid only
D. All of the above

Which of the following is used to control rods in nuclear fission:

A. Graphite
B. Heavy Water
C. Cadmium
D. All of these

Tick the correct statement:

A. Moderators slow down the neutrons
B. Moderators bring the neutrons to rest
C. Moderators absorb the neutrons
D. Moderators reflect the neutrons

Atom is the smallest particall which is:

A. Indivisible 
B. Divisible
C. Both
D. Non of these

Potential energy means:

A. Due to position of object
B. Due to motion of object
C. Due to gravity
D. None of these

A football is kicked at 45 degrees with horizontal with K.E of E. Its K.E. at highest point is:

A. Zero
B. E/2
C. E
D. E/(2)^1/2

The internal energy of the system increases:

A. in adiabatic expansion
B. in adiabatic compression
C. in isothermal expansion
D. in isothermal compression

What is the ratio of the velocity of sound at 4 atmosphere to that at 1 atmosphere:

A. 4 : 1
B. 1 : 1
C. 2 : 1
D. 1 : 2

A cube of side 5 cm has a charge of 6 C. The surface density of charge is:

A. 100 C m^–2
B. 200 C m^–2
C. 300 C m^–2
D. 400 C m^–

The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce energy losses due to:

A. Eddy currents
B. Hysteresis
C. Resistance in winding
D. None of these

Electric current in a solid metal conductor is caused by the movement of what:

A. Protons
B. Electrons
C. Metal atoms
D. Metal ions

A Stone thrown from the top of a tall building follows a path that is:

A. Circular
B. Made of two straight line segments
C. Hyperbolic
D. Parabolic

The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:

A. Vaccum
B. Glass
C. Water
D. Air

Farad is the unit of:

A. inductance
B. voltage
C. capacitance
D. None of these

The efficiency of the Carnot engine working between 150°C and 50°C is:

A. 50%
B. 100%
C. 23.6%
D. 29.4%

A force applied on a body through the string is called:

A. Weight
B. Momentum
C. Tension
D. Torque

Gravitation force of moon is:

A. 7.2 m/s²
B. 1.62 m/s²
C. 9.8 m/s²
D. 3.75 m/s²

Gravitation force of sun is:

A. 274 m/s²
B. 362 m/s²
C. 300 m/s²
D. None  of these

Gravitation force of earth is:

A. 9.80 m/s²
B. 7.21 m/s²
C. 1.62 m/s²
D. None of these

The mass-energy relation is the outcome of:

A. Quantum theory
B. General theory of relativity
C. Special theory of relativity
D. None of these

Mach number is used in connection with the speed of:

A. Ship
B. Light
C. Sound
D. aircraft

Rutherford in his atomic model could not explain behavior of:

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Neutrino

Joule Thomson effect is based upon:

A. Sudden compression of gases
B. Sudden expansion of gases
C. Cooling of gases
D. Heating of gases

Medium which sends signal from source to destination is known as:

A. Transmitter
B. Transmission channel
C. Receiver
D. Hardware

Which one of the following is not a radioactive element:

A. Cadmium
B. Thorium
C. Radium
D. Uranium

The most suitable unit for expressing nuclear radius is:

A. Angstrom
B. Micro
C. Nano meter
D. Fermi

The turning effect of force is called:

A. Moment
B. Momentum
C. Torque
D. None of these

Which of the following waves have smallest velocity in vacuum:

A. Ultraviolet
B. Sound
C. Infra-Red
D. Micro

Who were the pioneers of Physics:

A. Egyptians
B. Greek
C. Latin
D. Persians

Which one of the following is not vector quantity:

A. Acceleration
B. Displacement
C. Speed
D. Force

Which of the following is not derived quantity:

A. Time
B. Density
C. Volume
D. Area

The symbol of the prefix used for Mega is:

A. G
B. h
C. M
D. E

Name the SI unit having the symbol cd:

A. Candela
B. Cm
C. Ampere
D. Second

Which of the following branch of Physics deals with the internal structure of earth:

A. Biophysics
B. Geophysics
C. Plasma physics
D. Atomic physics

The average acceleration caused by gravity per second is:

A. 22 feet
B. 32 feet
C. 52 feet
D. 42 feet

The value of γ for diatomic gas is:

A. 1.67
B. 1.4
C. γ = 1.3
D. None

In which process all the heat supplied is converted into work done:

A. isothermal
B. isochoric
C. isobaric
D. isentropic

The performance of a refrigerator is described by:

A. efficiency
B. coefficient of performance
C. both A and B
D. not described

The unit of entropy is:

A. J.K
B. J/K
C. N.m/sec
D. Kgm2/sec2.K

Which quantity is a state function:

A. internal energy
B. heat supply
C. pressure
D. volume

Petrol engine is a:

A. C.I engine
B. SI engine
C. IC engine
D. all the above

For the successful operation of Heat engine which condition should be met:

A. cyclic process
B. operated at certain temperature difference
C. both A and B
D. none of these

The work done in the isochoric process is:

A. constant
B. variable
C. zero
D. depends on situation

Adiabatic process is also called:

A. Heat exchange process
B. Heating process
C. Isentropic process
D. All of the above

In which process entropy remains constant:

A. isobaric
B. isochoric
C. adiabatic
D. isothermal

Average translational kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas is given by:

A. 3NaT/2R
B. 2NaT/3
C. 3RT/2Na
D. 3Na/2RT

At what temperature is the Fahrenheit scale reading equal to twice that of the Celsius scale:

A. 460°C
B. 280°C
C. 360°C
D. 160°C

Standard condition STP refer to a gas at:

A. 76cm 0°C
B. 760mm 273K
C. 1atm 273K
D. all of the above

The size of one degree of Celsius is equal to:

A. One degree of Fahrenheit scale
B. 1.8 degrees of Fahrenheit scale
C. 3.2 degrees of Fahrenheit scale
D. 2.12 degrees of Fahrenheit scale

The Fahrenheit and centigrade scales agree to:

A. 40
B. 15.5
C. 542
D. 273

Normal human body temperature 98.6°F corresponds to:

A. 37°C
B. 42°C
C. 55°C
D. 410°C

If the volume of a gas is held constant and we increase its temperature then:

A. its pressure is constant
B. its pressure rises
C. its pressure falls
D. any of above

Boyles law helds for ideal gases in:

A. isochoric processes
B. isobaric processes
C. isothermal processes
D. adiabatic processes

We can produce heat by:

A. Frictional process
B. Chemical processes
C. Electrical processes
D. All of the above

At constant temperature the graph between V and 1/P is:

A. Hyperbola
B. Parabola
C. A curve of any shape
D. A straight lime

Dimension of pressure is:

A. MLT
B. ML-1T-1
C. ML-1T-2
D. ML-2T-2

The rectangular voltage is an example of:

A. An analogue waveform
B. Continuous wave form
C. Electronic waveform
D. A digital waveform

An OP-AMPs can amplify:

A. D.C.
B. A.C.
C. Both A.C. & D.C.
D. None of the above

Acceptor and donor impurities donate:

A. n-carriers only
B. p-carriers only
C. p-carriers and n-carriers respectively
D. n-carriers

In forward bias the width of potential barrier:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains same
D. No effect

The working of transistor as amplifier is similar to:

A. Step up transformer
B. Step down transformer
C. Three diodes in common
D. Triode vacuum tube

Non-inverting amplifier circuits have:

A. A very high input impedance
B. A very low input impedance
C. A low output impedance
D. None of the above

The operation of a transistor requires:

A. That the emitter be heated
B. That the base be heated
C. That the collector be heated
D. None of the above

The alternating voltage is an example of:

A. A digital waveform
B. An analogue waveform
C. Discrete waveform
D. None at all

The device used for conversion of D.C. to A.C. is called:

A. Converter
B. A rectifier
C. Inverter
D. Oscillator

In the transistor schematic symbol, the arrow:

A. is located on the emitter
B. is located on the base
C. is locate on the collector
D. points form north to south

Which one of the following is not a donor impurity:

A. antimony
B. phosphorus
C. aluminium
D. arsenic

Forward current through a semi conductor diode circuit is due to:

A. minority carriers
B. majority carriers
C. holes
D. electron

The value of resistivity for insulator is of the order of:

A. 105 ohm metre
B. 106 ohm metre
C. 107 ohm metre
D. 108 ohm metre

Which one of following band is completely filled in case of conductors:

A. Conduction band
B. Fermi band
C. Valence band
D. Forbidden band

In p-n-p transistor the collector current is:

A. equal to emitter current
B. slightly less than emitter current
C. greater than emitter current
D. any of above

Semi-conductors with donor atoms and free electrons belong to the type:

A. n
B. p
C. mix
D. any of above

The device or circuit used for conversion of A.C. into D.C. is called:

A. An amplifier.
B. A rectifier
C. Filtering circuit
D. Converter.

In the transistor schematic symbol, the arrow:

A. is located on the emitter
B. is located on the base
C. is locate on the collector
D. points form north to south

Thermions are:

A. protons
B. positrons
C. electrons
D. photons

Which one of the following has the greatest energy gap:

A. insulator
B. conductor
C. semi conductor
D. any of above

In n-p-n transistor, p works as:

A. collector
B. emitter
C. base
D. any of above

p-n junction when reversed biased acts as a:

A. capacitor
B. inductor
C. on switch
D. off switch

Semi-conductor germanium and silicon are:

A. pentavalent
B. trivalent
C. divalent
D. tetravalent

Electrons present in p-type material due to thermal pair generation are:

A. majority carriers
B. minority carriers
C. dual carriers
D. blockers

The velocity of laser light is:

A. Less than ordinary light
B. More than ordinary light
C. Equal to ordinary light
D. Different for different colours or frequency

Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to:

A. Further stimulation
B. Lasing more
C. For producing more energetic lasers
D. All

In He-Ne laser the lasing action is produced by:

A. Ne only
B. He-Ne both
C. Electrons of He
D. Electrons Ne

The metastable state for an atom in laser light is:

A. 10-4 sec
B. 10-5 sec
C. 10-3 sec
D. 10-8 sec

UV radiation can be produced by:

A. Heating the filament
B. Electron excitation in the gas
C. Ionization of atoms
D. All the above

Radiation produced from TV picture tube is:

A. B-rays
B. X-rays
C. Far infrared
D. Infrared

X-rays are similar in nature to:

A. Cathode rays
B. Positive rays
C. γ-rays
D. Beta rays

In an electronic transition atom cannot emit:

A. γ-rays
B. Infra red radiation
C. Visible light
D. Ultraviolet rays

Radiation with wavelength longer than red lights:

A. ultraviolet rays
B. X-rays
C. infra red radiation
D. visible radiation

Reverse process of photoelectric effect is:

A. pair production
B. Compton effect
C. annihilation of matter
D. X-rays production

The penetrating power of X-rays depends on their:

A. applied voltage
B. frequency
C. source
D. all of the above

Bracket series is obtained when all transition of electron terminate on:

A. 4th orbit
B. 5th orbit
C. 3rd orbit
D. 2nd orbit

The electric P.E of an electron in an orbit at a distance rn from the positive charge:

A. Ke2/rn
B. Ke2/rn2
C. ÀKe2/rn
D. ÀKe2/rn2

Ground state energy of the 4th orbit in a H-atom is:

A. 13.60 eV
B. 3.40 eV
C. 0.85 eV
D. 1.51 eV

In obtaining an X-ray photograph of our hand we use the principle of:

A. photo electric effect
B. ionization
C. shadow photograph
D. any of above

Photon of highest frequency will be absorbed when transition takes place from:

A. 1st to 5th orbit
B. 2nd to 5th orbit
C. 3rd to 5th orbit
D. 4th to 5th orbit

The radiations emitted form hydrogen filled discharge tube show:

A. band spectrum
B. line spectrum
C. continuous spectrum
D. absorption spectrum

Total number of series in hydrogen spectrum is:

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six

X-ray are:

A. of unknown nature
B. high energy electrons
C. high energy photons
D. radio isotop

Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays because:

A. its energy levels are too close to each other
B. its energy levels are too far apart
C. it is too small in size
D. it has a single electron

Excited atoms return to their ground state in:

A. 10-10s
B. 10-8s
C. 10-6s
D. 10-9s

Michelson calculated the speed of light using the instruments:

A. spectrometer
B. galvanometer
C. interferometer
D. none of these

The function of collimeter in spectrometer is:

A. to produce parallel beams of light
B. to filter the light rays
C. to make them
D. no function

Magnification of the astronomical telescope is:

A. fo+fe
B. fo/fe
C. fe/fo
D. (1+fo/fe)L/fo

The value of critical angle for glass is:

A. 42°
B. 47°
C. 52°
D. 50°

Dioptre power of an concave lens of 10 cm focal length is:

A. 10 dioptre
B. 10 dioptre
C. 1 / 10 dioptre
D. 1 / 10 dioptre

The minimum distance between an object and its real image in a convex lens is:

A. 2 f
B. 2.5 f
C. 3f
D. 4f

In multimode step index fibre the refractive index of core and cladding is:

A. same
B. different
C. zero
D. different with refractive index of core higher than cladding

The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is:

A. 15 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm

Magnifying power of simple microscope:

A. increase with increase in focal length
B. increase with decrease in focal length
C. no effect with decrease or increase with focal length
D. list distance of distinct vision

If an object is placed away from 2f of a converging lens then the image will be:

A. real and erect
B. virtual and erect
C. real and inverted
D. virtual

The power of a concave lens is:

A. real
B. virtual
C. positive
D. negative

Unit of power of a lens is:

A. meter
B. watt
C. diopter
D. horsepower

The diameter of a lens is called:

A. focal length
B. principal axis
C. aperture
D. radius of curvature

Electron moves in the orbit as:

A. Simple vibratory motion
B. Standing wave motion
C. Vibratory motion like up and down
D. S.H.M likes the sound

Compton effect proves the:

A. Photon theory of light
B. Dual nature of light
C. Wave nature of light
D. Uncertain nature of light

For confinement of electron in a box of radius 10-14m the electron, speed should be:

A. 107m/sec
B. Should be greater than the speed of light.
C. Be zero
D. Not be wave-like

A three-dimensional image is obtained by:

A. Electron microscope
B. Scanning electron microscope
C. Magnetic imaging
D. None of the above

In an electron microscope, we use energetic particles because of:

A. Penetrating power is high
B. Kinetic energy is large
C. Wavelength is very short
D. All the above reasons

If a diffraction grating is placed in the path of a light beam it reveals:

A. Wave property
B. Particle property
C. Energy particle
D. Electromagnetic wave property

In Davisson-Germer experiment the diffracted proton from crystal shows:

A. Particle property
B. Wave property
C. Light property
D. Quantum property

A photon of wavelength 900nm behaves like a particle of mass:

A. 5.53 x 10-36kg
B. 0 kg.
C. 2.46 x 10-36kg
D. 1.84 x 10-44kg

If n number of the photon is striking on a metal surface then total momentum exerted is:

A. p
B. n
C. 0
D. None

If a photon is reflected from the mirror then the change in momentum of each photon is:

A. Zero
B. Double
C. Half
D. 1

A photon is:

A. A unit of energy
B. A positively charged particle
C. A quantum of electromagnetic radiation
D. A unit of wavelength

Davison Germer experiment indicates:

A. Interference
B. Polarization
C. Electron diffraction
D. Refraction

The name of the photon for quantum of light was proposed by:

A. Ampere
B. Plank
C. Thomson
D. Einstein

Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by:

A. 1/2 mvmax2=hf+Φ
B. 1/2 mvmax2-hf = Φ
C. 1/2 mvmax2=hf-Φ
D. All of above are correct

Rest mass of a photon is:

A. infinite
B. zero
C. very small
D. 1.67 x 10-27 kg

If a material object moves with speed of light its mass becomes:

A. equal to its rest mass
B. double of its rest mass
C. infinite
D. zero

The existence of Ether wind was experimentally rejected by:

A. equal to its rest mass
B. double of its rest mass
C. infinite
D. zero

The linear momentum of an X-ray photon of wavelength 0.1A is:

A. 6.625x1023N-s
B. 66.25x1023N-s
C. 662.5x1023N-s
D. data is insufficient

Linear momentum of a photon is:

A. zero
B. hv/c2
C. hv/c
D. c2/hv

0.001 kg mass will be equivalent to:

A. 2.50 GWh
B. 25.00 GWh
C. 0.26 GWh
D. 250 GWh

Which one of the following radiations has the strongest photon:

A. T.V waves
B. Microwaves
C. X-rays
D. γ-rays

The relativistic energy E is equivalent to relativistic mass given by:

A. Ec2
B. E/c2
C. E/c
D. c2/E

The energy absorbed by a body is _____at resonance:

A. Maximum as well minimum
B. Minimum only
C. Maximum only
D. 0

In case of a simple pendulum, the cause of damping is:

A. Drag force of air
B. Gravity
C. Tension in the string
D. None of these

For a simple pendulu,m the restoring force is caused by:

A. Gravity
B. Spring
C. Hand
D. All of these

Displacement of the body in S.H.M is equal to amplitude when the body is at:

A. Mean position
B. Elsewhere
C. Extreme position
D. None

The projection of the particle moving in a circle with non-uniform speed executes:

A. S.H.M
B. Vibratory motion
C. Both B and D
D. None S.H.M

The velocity of the mass attached to a spring is maximum at:

A. Mean position
B. Extreme position
C. Both A and B
D. None

The mass attached to a spring executes:

A. Vibratory motion
B. Rotatory motion
C. S.H.M
D. Both A and C

Forced vibration is known as:

A. Simple harmonic vibration
B. Natural vibration
C. Driven harmonic vibration
D. Free vibration

In damped harmonic oscillation which one decreases:

A. Amplitude of vibration
B. Energy of vibration
C. Both amplitude and energy
D. Neither amplitude nor energy

When K.E energy of SHM is maximum its:

A. P.E is zero
B. Acceleration is zero
C. Restoring force is zero
D. All P.E acceleration and restoring force are zer

Electrical resonance is observed in:

A. Radio
B. Microwave oven
C. Both in radio and microwave oven
D. Neither in radio nor in a microwave oven

The natural frequency of simple pendulum depends upon:

A. It’s mass
B. It’s length
C. Square of its length
D. The square root of its length

The phase of SHM describes:

A. Displacement only
B. The direction of motion only
C. Both displacement and direction of motion
D. Neither displacement nor direction of motion

Which one does not work according to resonance:

A. T.V
B. Radio
C. Microwave oven
D. Bulb

For what displacement the P.E becomes 1/4 of its maximum value:

A. x = x’
B. x = x’/2
C. x = x’/4
D. x = x(2)’/2

The length of the second pendulum is:

A. 100 cm
B. 99 cm
C. 99.2 cm
D. 98 cm

The product of the frequency and time period is equal to:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

The energy of SHM is maximum at:

A. Mean position
B. Extreme position
C. In between mean and extreme
D. All positions during SHM

When the amplitude of a wave becomes double its energy become:

A. Double
B. Four times
C. One half
D. None time

The SI unit of force constant is identical with that of:

A. Force
B. Pressure
C. Surface tension
D. Loudness

Simple harmonic motion is a type of:

A. Rotational motion
B. Circular motion
C. Musical arrangement
D. Vibratory motion

The frequency of the second pendulum is:

A. 1 hertz
B. 0.5 hertz
C. 1.5 hertz
D. 2.5 hertz

The force responsible for the vibratory motion of the simple pendulum is:

A. mg cosθ
B. mg sinθ
C. mg tonθ
D. mg

If the length of the second pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become:

A. 4 times
B. 6 times
C. 8 times
D. 2 times

The time period of a second pendulum is:

A. 4 seconds
B. 3 seconds
C. 2 seconds
D. 6 seconds

The acceleration of a projection on the diameter for a particle moving along a circle is:

A. w2x
B. wx2
C. w2x
D. wx2

S.I unit of frequency is:

A. Vibration S-2
B. Radian
C. Hertz
D. ms-1

The waveform of S.H.M. is:

A. Standing wave
B. Sine wave
C. Square wave
D. None

In vibratory motion:

A. P E remains constant
B. K E remain constant
C. total energy remains constant
D. total momentum remains constant

The normal blood pressure range for a human body is:

A. 120 to 80 torr
B. 100 to 80 torr
C. 120 to 60 torr
D. 60 to 140 torr

The density of human blood is nearly equal to:

A. Water
B. Honey
C. Mercury
D. Oil (kerosene)

Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for:

A. Laminar flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Both laminar and turbulent flow
D. None of these

The profile of aeroplane wing which lifts it up is called as:

A. Wing shape
B. Aerofoil profile
C. Curved profile
D. None of these

The blood flow is ___flow at systolic pressure:

A. Laminar
B. Turbulent
C. Mixed
D. None

Sphygmomanometers measures blood pressure:

A. Statically
B. Dynamically
C. Some time static and sometimes dynamic
D. None of these

Laminar flow usually occurs at speeds:

A. Low
B. High
C. Very high
D. Some time high and some time low

A chimney works best if air exposed to the chimney is:

A. Stationary
B. Moving
C. Moving slowly
D. Moving fast

Systolic pressure is called:

A. Low blood pressure
B. High blood pressure
C. Normal blood pressure
D. Abnormal blood pressure

Stokes law is applicable if body has ____shape:

A. Rough
B. Square
C. Circular
D. Spherical

Concentration of red cells in blood is about:

A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 75%

Blood vessels are:

A. Rigid
B. Not rigid
C. Of glass
D. Of rubber

Velocity of fluid increases where the pressure is:

A. Low
B. High
C. Constant
D. Changes continuously

The flow of ideal fluid is always:

A. Turbulent
B. Streamline
C. Irregular
D. Straight line

Terminal velocity of the body is directly proportional to the:

A. Plasma physics
B. Electro-static’s
C. Electro-magnetic
D. Electro-dynamics

The physics of moving charge particles is known as:

A. Plasma physics
B. Electro-static’s
C. Electro-magnetic
D. Electro-dynamics

The branch of physics which deals with the living things is called:

A. biological sciences
B. physical sciences
C. cell systems
D. elementary physics

The branch of Physics which deals with properties of gravitational:

B. Acoustics
C. Hydro dynamic
D. Optics

The Branch of Physics deals with highly energetic ions is called:

A. Elementary articles
B. Article physics
C. Ionic physics
D. Plasma physics

Which branch of science plays an important role in engineering:

A. Biology
B. Chemistry
C. Physics
D. All of these

Physics is one of the branches of:

A. Physical sciences
B. Biological sciences
C. Social science
D. Life sciences branch

Area under velocity time graph represent:

A. force
B. displacement
C. distance
D. acceleration

linear expansion occurs in:

A. solid
B. liquid
C. both
D. none

The unit of coefficient of linear expansion or volume expansion is:

A. K
B. K-1
C. K -2
D. none

Which one of the following is massless:

A. Proton
B. Electron
C. Neutron
D. Photon

The first book of Physics was written by:

A. Kelvin
B. Newton
C. Aristotle
D. Faraday

Study of living science relates with:

A. Physical science
B. Biological science
C. Just living science
D. Organ science

What is the shape of velocity, time graph for constant acceleration:

A. straight inclined line.
B. parabola
C. inclined curve
D. declined curve

Which of the following pair has same direction always:

A. force, displacement
B. force, velocity
C. force, acceleration
D. force, momentum

The dimension of force is:

A. MLT-2
B. ML2T-2
C. ML2T2
D. ML-2T-2

3rd law of motion explains:

A. effect of force
B. existence of a force
C. existence of two forces
D. existence of pair of forces in nature

1st law of motion gives the definition of:

A. inertia
B. motion
C. velocity
D. force

Inertia of an object is quantitative measure of its:

A. volume
B. density
C. mass
D. temperature

Slope of velocity time graph is:

A. acceleration
B. distance
C. force
D. momentum

A body is moving with uniform velocity. Its:

A. speed changes
B. acceleration changes
C. direction of motion changes
D. displacement from origin changes

Time rate of change of momentum is equal to:

A. force
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. both A and C

At which angle the range of the projectile is maximum:

A. 45
B. 60
C. 30
D. none

Flight of a rocket in the space is an example of:

A. second law of motion
B. third law of motion
C. first law of motion
D. law of gravitation

Distance covered by a freely falling body in 2 seconds will be:

A. 4.9 m
B. 19.6 m
C. 39.2 m
D. 44.1 m

What is the angle of projection for which the range and maximum height become equal:

A. tan-1 ¼
B. tan-1 4
C. tan-1 ½
D. tan-1 2

Taking off rocket can be explained by:

A. 1st law of motion
B. 2nd law of motion
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. law of conservation of energy

When a body moves in a straight line then its displacement coincides with:

A. distance
B. force
C. acceleration is zero
D. both A and B

Momentum depends upon:

A. force acts on the body
B. mass of the body
C. velocity of the body
D. both mass and velocity of the body

2nd law of motion gives the definition of:

A. force
B. acceleration
C. velocity
D. both force and acceleration

Which law of motion is also called law of inertia:

A. 1st law
B. 2nd law
C. 3rd law
D. all 1st, 2nd and 3rd laws

In vibrating cord the points where the amplitude is maximum, are called:

A. antinodes
B. nodes
C. troughs
D. crests

Waves transmit _____from one place to another:

A. energy
B. mass
C. both
D. none

The range of the projectile at 30 deg and 60 deg are:

A. equal to 45 deg
B. equal to 90 deg
C. equal to each other
D. none of the above

The trajectory (or path) of a projectile is:

A. straight line
B. parabola
C. hyperbola
D. circle

The distance covered by a body in time t starting from rest is:

A. at2/2
B. Vt
C. a2t/2
D. at2

Newton estimated the speed of sound:

A. 281m/sec
B. 333m/sec
C. 340m/sec
D. all of the above

Silence zone takes place due to:

A. constructive interference
B. destructive interference
C. beats
D. resonance

Ultrasonic have:

A. frequency in the audible range
B. frequency is greater than 20 kHz
C. frequency lower than 20 Hz
D. all of above

The velocity of sound is greatest in:

A. Water
B. air
C. copper
D. ammonia

Velocity of sound in vacuum is:

A. 332 ms-1
B. 320 ms-1
C. Zero
D. 224 ms-1

According to Newton sound travel in air under the conditions of:

A. adiabatic
B. isothermal
C. isobaric
D. isochoric

On loading the prong of a tuning form with wax its frequency:

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. may increase or decrease

Increase in velocity of sound in the air for 1°C rise in temperature is:

A. 1.61 ms-1
B. 61.0 ms-1
C. 0.61 ms-1
D. 2.00 ms-1

Sound waves do not travel in vacuum because:

A. they are transverse waves
B. they are stationary waves
C. they require material medium for propagation
D. they do not have enough energy

If stretching force T of wire increases, then its frequency:

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains the same
D. any of above

The waves that require a material medium for their propagation are called:

A. matter waves
B. electromagnetic waves
C. carrier waves
D. mechanical waves

The speed of stationary waves in a stretched string are independent of:

A. Number of loops
B. Tension in the string
C. Point where string is plucked
D. both A and C

The speed of sound in hydrogen is _______time than that in oxygen:

A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four time
D. Six time

The dimension of elastic modulus is:

A. ML-1T-2
B. ML-2T-2
C. MLT-2
D. ML2T-2

In open organ pipe:

A. only even harmonics are present
B. only odd harmonics are present
C. both even and odd harmonics are present
D. selected harmonics are present

Doppler effect applies to:

A. sound wave only
B. light wave only
C. both sound and light waves
D. neither sound nor light wave

Beats are the results of:

A. diffraction of sound waves
B. constructive and destructive interference
C. polarization
D. destructive interference

The normal ear is the most sensitive in the frequency range:

A. 20000 to 30000 hertz
B. 10 to 20 hertz
C. 2000 to 4000 hertz
D. 6000 to 8000 hertz

Reciprocal of resistivity is called:

A. resistance
B. inductance
C. conductivity
D. flexibility

Resistance of an ideal insulator is:

A. infinite
B. zero
C. finite
D. depends upon nature

Thermocouples convert:

A. heat energy into electrical energy
B. heat energy into light energy
C. heat energy into mechanical energy
D. mechanical energy into heat energy

The beats frequency (sensible) for a human car is:

A. 42Hz
B. 7 Hz
C. 256Hz
D. 262Hz

Resistance of a conductor depends upon:

A. nature of conductor
B. dimension of conductor
C. physical state of the conductor
D. all of above

Why should a resistance be introduced in a circuit in series deliberately:

A. to increase current
B. to decrease current
C. to control current
D. just to give a good look to circuit

Which one of the following materials is useful for making bulb filaments:

A. constantan
B. nichrome
C. copper
D. tungsten

In the following figure, the terminal potential is:

A. zero
B. 2V
C. 12V
D. 36V

There are three bulbs of 60W 100W and 200W which bulb has thickest filament:

A. 100W
B. 200W
C. 60W
D. al

Circuit which gives continuously varying potential is called:

A. complex network
B. wheat stone bridge
C. potential divider
D. all of above

An electric iron is marked 20 volts 500W. The units consumed by it in using if for 24 hours will be:

A. 12
B. 24
C. 5
D. 1100

In liquids and gases the current is due to the motion:

A. negative charges
B. positive charges
C. both negative and positive charges
D. neutral particles

Internal resistance is the resistance offered by:

A. source of EMF
B. conductor
C. resistor
D. capacitor

Which one is the best material for making connecting wires:

A. iron
B. tungsten
C. silver
D. copper

Resistance of a super conductor is:

A. finite
B. infinite
C. zero
D. changes w

How much heat does a 40 W bulb generates in one hour:

A. 144000J
B. 144J
C. 1.44J
D. 14J

One kilowatt hour is the amount of energy delivered during:

A. one second
B. one day
C. one minute
D. one hour

When same current passes for same time through a thick and thin wire:

A. more heat is produced in thick wire
B. more heat is produced in thin wire
C. no heat is produced in wire
D. less heat is produced in thick wire

Photoelectric effect was given by:

A. Hertz
B. Fresnel
C. Einstein
D. Plank

Which one of the following properties of light does not change with the nature of the medium:

A. velocity
B. wavelength
C. amplitude
D. frequency

In double slit experiment we observe:

A. interference fringes only
B. diffraction fringes only
C. both interference and diffraction fringes
D. polarized fringes

Optical active crystals rotates the:

A. vibrating plane
B. polarization plane
C. diffraction plane
D. interference plane

Which one of the following bulbs has the least resistance:

A. 100 watt
B. 200 watt
C. 300 watt
D. 60 watt

A fuse is placed in series with the circuit to protect against:

A. high power
B. high voltage
C. high current
D. over heating

Electrical energy is converted to heat at the rate of:

A. IRt
B. I2R
C. I2Rt
D. VIt

Electrical energy is measured in:

A. watt
B. horse power
C. kilo watt
D. kilowatt hour

The resistance of a conductor at absolute zero (OK) is:

A. zero almost
B. infinite almost
C. no prediction at all
D. may increase or decrease

The graphical representation of Ohms law is:

A. hyperbola
B. ellipse
C. parabola
D. straight line

The blue colour of the sky is due to:

A. diffraction
B. reflection
C. polarization
D. scattering

In Young double slit experiment, if white light is used:

A. alternate dark and bright fringes will be seen
B. coloured fringes will be seen
C. no interference fringes will be seen
D. impossible to predict

Which one of the following is nearly monochromatic light:

A. light form fluorescent tube
B. light form neon lamp
C. light form sodium lamp
D. light form simple lamp

Longitudinal waves do not exhibit:

A. reflection
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. polarization

Central spot of Newtons rings:

A. bright
B. dark for large wavelength
C. dark
D. bright for large wavelength

Light reaches the earth form sun in nearly:

A. 15 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 8 minutes
D. 8 minutes 30 seconds

Which is not optically active:

A. sugar
B. tartaric acid
C. water
D. sodium chlorate

Crystals of a material can behave as:

A. Convex lens
B. Interferometer
C. Diffraction grating
D. Concave

Which one of the following cannot be polarized:

A. radio waves
B. ultraviolet rays
C. X-rays
D. sound waves

In monochromatic red light a blue book will probably appear to be:

A. black
B. purple
C. green
D. no scientific reasoning available

A thing that emits its own light is:

A. luminous
B. non-luminous
C. incandescent
D. bright

Diffraction fringes are:

A. equally spaced
B. distance between them increases
C. distance between then decreases
D. they are adjacent with no space in between

Light on passing through a Polaroid is:

A. plane polarized
B. un-polarized
C. circularly polarized
D. elliptically polarized

Diffraction effect is:

A. more for a round edge
B. less for a round edge
C. more for a sharp edge
D. less for a sharp edge

appearance of colour in thin films is due to:

A. diffraction
B. dispersion
C. interference
D. polarization

The velocity of light was determined accurately by:

A. Newton
B. Michelson
C. Huygen
D. Young

The locus of all points in a medium having the same phase of vibration is called:

A. crest
B. trough
C. wavelength
D. wave front

Work done by the force of friction is:

A. always positive
B. always negative
C. positive only for small frictional force
D. positive only for large frictional force

The source of geothermal energy is:

A. decay of radioactive element in the earth
B. compression of material in the earth
C. residual lost of the earth
D. all as said in A – B and C

The escape velocity of a body in gravitational field of earth is independent of:

A. its mass
B. the angle at which it is thrown
C. both its mass and the angle at which it is thrown
D. gravitational field of earth

The source of tidal energy is:

A. sun
B. earth
C. both A and B
D. moon

The dot product of force and velocity is:

A. power
B. work
C. impulse
D. torque

The dimension of power is:

A. [ML2T-3]
B. [ML2T-2]
C. [ML2T3]
D. none of these

The work done by friction is:

A. positive
B. negative
C. zero
D. none of these

The escape velocity form the earth surface in km S-1 is:

A. 4.2 km S-1
B. 7.5 km S-1
C. 9.5 km S-1
D. 1.1 km S-1

The consumption of energy by a 60 watt bulb in 2 sec is:

A. 120 J
B. 60 J
C. 30 J
D. 0.02 J

Which of the following is not conservative force:

A. friction
B. electric
C. gravitational
D. magnetic

Gravitational P.E of a body has:

A. no formula
B. a formula mgh only
C. a formula
D. no general formula

The highest value of escape velocity in solar system is planet:

A. Earth
B. Neptune
C. Jupiter
D. Moon

The tides raise the mater in the see roughly in a day:

A. once
B. twice
C. four time
D. eight time

Work done on the body equals to the:

A. change in its K.E always
B. change in its P.E always
C. change in its K.E and change in its P.E
D. neither change in K.E and nor change in its P.E

Slope of work time graph is equal to:

A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. power
D. energy

The relation between horse power and watt is:

A. 1 hp = 546 watts
B. 1 hp = 746 watts
C. 1 hp = 1000 watts
D. 1 hp = 946 watts

On a clear day at noon the solar energy reaching the earth is:

A. 1.44kw/m2
B. 1.4kw/m2
C. 1 kw/m2
D. none

_____cells converts solar energy into electrical energy:

A. rotory
B. photovoltaic
C. galvanic
D. non of these

Geothermal energy is a _____ source of energy:

A. non-renewable
B. stable
C. renewable
D. none of the above

Propulsion force of a rocket is:

A. non-conservative force
B. conservative force
C. both A and B
D. none of these

The area under the force displacement graph represents:

A. area
B. work done
C. power
D. none of these

When two protons are brought together:

A. Kinetic energy increases
B. P.E. between them increases
C. P.E. between them decreases
D. P.E. between tem does not change

One mega watt hour is equal to:

A. 36 x 106 J
B. 36 x 1012 J
C. 36 x 109 J
D. 36 x 108 J

When the speed of a moving body is doubled then:

A. its K.E is doubled
B. its acceleration is doubled
C. its P.E is doubled
D. its momentum is doubled

What are the dimensions of stress:

A. MLT-2
B. ML-2T-1
C. ML-1T-2
D. ML-T-1

Which of the following substances posses the highest elasticity:

A. Rubber
B. Steel
C. Glass
D. Copper

Biomass can be converted into fuels by:

A. direct combustion
B. fermentation
C. both A and B
D. none of these

Which one has the greatest energy gap:

A. Semi conductor
B. Conductor
C. Metals
D. Non metals

A completely filled band is called:

A. Conduction band
B. Valence band
C. Forbidden band
D. Core band

The band theory of solids explains satisfactorily the nature of:

A. Electrical insulators alone
B. Electrical conductors alone
C. Electrical semi conductors alone
D. All of the above

If the density of atoms remain same along any direction in a crystal is called:

A. Symmetry
B. Homogeneity
C. Isotropy
D. Cleavage

The angular position of cells remains the same for a sample of a crystal. This property is called:

A. Isotropy
B. Cleavage
C. Homogeneity
D. The external symmetry of form

A ferromagnet will become fully magnetized at:

A. High voltage A.C
B. Low voltage A.C
C. Alternating current at its peak value
D. D.C current at peak value

The energy band occupied by the valence electrons is called:

A. Energy state
B. Valence band
C. ve energy state
D. conduction band

The curie temperature is that at which:

A. Semi-conductor becomes conductors
B. Ferromagnetic becomes paramagnetic
C. Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic
D. Metals become super conductor

Materials that undergo plastic deformation before breaking are called:

A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Amorphous
D. Polymers

What is the SI unit of modulus of elasticity of substance:

A. Nm-2
B. Jm-2
C. Nm-1
D. Being a number it has no unit.

Very weak magnetic fields are detected by:

A. Squids
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C. Magnetometer
D. Oscilloscope

The net charge on n-type material is:

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Both positive and negative
D. Neutral

In a semiconductors the charge carriers are:

A. Holes only
B. Electrons only
C. Electron and holes both
D. All of the above

Holes can exist in:

A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Semi conductors
D. All of the above

Many of the semi conductors are crystals of the type:

A. Face centred cubic
B. Body centred cubic
C. Simple cubic
D. All of the above

The electrons in conduction band are free to:

A. Transport vibrations
B. Transport signals
C. Transport charge
D. Transport impulses

A vacant or partially filled band is called:

A. Conduction band
B. Valence band
C. Forbidden band
D. Empty band

In simple cube one atom or molecule lies at its:

A. Force corners
B. Nine corners
C. Eight corners
D. Six corners

The breaking of crystals along definite direction is called:

A. Cleavage
B. Symmetry
C. Isotropy
D. Homogeneity

Coercive force is the force which opposes:

A. Demagnetization
B. Breakage
C. Extension
D. Surface cracking

n instrument which can measure potential without drawing any current is:

AA. voltmeter
B. galvanometer
C. cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO)
D. ammeter

The standard vector symbol for flux density is:

A. M
B. L
C. H
D. B

SI unit of flux density is:

A. NA-1m-1
B. NAm-1
C. NmA-1
D. NmA-2

Two parallel wires carrying currents in the opposite directions:

A. repel each other
B. attract each other
C. have no effect upon each other
D. they cancel out their individual magnetic fields

If a current carrying solenoid is suspended freely it will:

A. be rotating
B. come to rest in N-S direction
C. vibrating like galvanometer needle
D. comes to rest after rotation

Which one of the following is not an electromechanical instrument:

A. galvanometer
B. voltmeter
C. ammeter
D. AC transformer and DC generator

When the coil of the galvanometer is in equilibrium then the deflecting couple is:

A. zero
B. equal to the restoring couple
C. greater than the restoring couple
D. smaller than the restoring couple

The sensitivity of a galvanometer is given by:

A. C/BAN
B. CAN/B
C. BAN/C
D. ABC/N

The magnetic field strength of solenoid is:

A. B = μNI
B. B = μN/I
C. B = μnI
D. Both B and C

Electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the speed of:

A. λ-rays
B. Positive rays
C. Cathode rays
D. More than sound waves

Heating a magnet will:

A. weaken it
B. strengthen it
C. reverse its polarity
D. demagnetize it completely

Galvanometer is a very sensitive device with:

A. very low damping
B. very high damping
C. no damping at all
D. radial field disintegration

Electromagnetic waves emitted from antenna are:

A. Stationary
B. Longitudinal
C. Transverse
D. All the above

Electromagnetic waves transport:

A. Energy
B. Momentum
C. Mass
D. Heat

A changing magnetic flux produces around itself an induced:

A. Magnetic field
B. Electric field
C. Electromagnetic force
D. Artificial gravitational field

Waves emitted from the antenna are:

A. Sound waves
B. Electromagnetic waves
C. Radio waves
D. Modulated waves

Ammeter connected in an AC circuit measures:

A. The exact value of the current
B. RMS value of the current
C. The net value of the current
D. The peak value of the current

In the capacitive circuit the current:

A. Lags behind voltage by π/2
B. Is in phase with voltage
C. Opposite in phase of voltage by π
D. Leads forward the voltage by π/2

pure resistor circuit the voltage and current are:

A. Lagging each other
B. They are at 90? phase difference
C. They have zero phase difference
D. No phase difference

At resonance the value of the power factor in an L-C-R series circuit is:

A. Zero
B. 2
C. 1
D. Not definite

A choke is used as a resistance in:

A. DC circuit
B. AC circuits
C. Both AC and DC circuit
D. Full wave rectifier circuit

The frequency of a circuit consisting of a capacitance C and a resistor R is:

A. C/R
B. R/C
C. 1/RC
D. 1/ 2RC

Maximum number of components of a vector may be:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Infinite

Maximum number of rectangular components are:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

The rectangular coordinate system is also called:

A. Polar coordinate system
B. Cartesian coordinate system
C. Cylindrical coordinate system
D. Spherical coordinate system

Unit vector n^ is along:

A. X-axis
B. Normal on a surface
C. Y-axis
D. Z-axis

A vector can be multiplied by a number. The number may be:

A. Dimensionless
B. Dimensional scalar
C. Negative
D. All A, B and C are correct

The direction of a vector in space is specified by:

A. One angle
B. Two angle
C. Three angle
D. No angle

Addition of vector obeys:

A. Commutative law
B. Distributive law
C. Associative law
D. All given laws in A, B and C

An inductor may store energy in:

A. Its electric field
B. Its coils
C. Its magnetic field
D. Both electric and magnetic fields

The magnitude of i^. (j^ x k^) is:

A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. i^

In which quadrant, the only value of tan will be positive:

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Both 1st and 3rd

The cross product of two vectors is a negative vector when:

A. They are parallel vectors
B. They are anti parallel vectors
C. They are a perpendicular vector
D. They are rotated through 270°

The cross product i^ x j^ is equal to:

A. Zero
B. One
C. i^
D. k

Which one is not correct for a vector A= 2i+2j+3k:

A. Has direction 45° with an x-axis
B. Has magnitude 2
C. Has magnitude 2 and direction °=45°
D. Has magnitude -2

The direction of the vector product is given by:

A. Head to tail rule
B. Right-hand rule
C. Left-hand rule
D. Triangular rule

I ^. (j^ x k^) is equal to:

A. 1
B. i^
C. j^
D. k^

If A=B, which of the following is not correct:

A. A.B = A^ B^
B. |A| = |B|
C. |A^| = |B^|
D. AB^ = BA^

In which quadrant the two rectangular components of a vector have same sign:

A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. Both 1st and 3rd
D. 4th

What is the angle that the given vector makes with y-axis and A=2i+3j:

A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 120°

A central force is that which:

A. Can produce torque
B. Cannot produce torque
C. Some time
D. Has no relation with torque

A body will be in complete equilibrium when it is satisfying:

A. 1st condition of equilibrium
B. 2nd condition of equilibrium
C. Both Ist and 2nd condition of equilibrium
D. Impossible

A body in equilibrium:

A. Always at rest
B. Always in uniform motion
C. May be at rest or in uniform motion
D. May be at rest or in motion

Torque acting on a body determines:

A. Acceleration
B. Linear acceleration
C. Angular acceleration
D. Direction of motion of the body

SI unit of torque is:

A. Nm
B. joule
C. Both a and b are correct
D. Neither a nor b is correct

The dimension of torque is:

A. [ML2T-2]
B. [MLT-2]
C. [ML2T]
D. [ML-2T-2]

An angle between two vectors A and B can be determined by:

A. Their dot product
B. Their cross product
C. Head to tail rule
D. Right-hand rule

Null vector is a vector which has:

A. Zero magnitude
B. No specified direction
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are not correct

Electrons:

A. Can exist inside the nucleus
B. Cannot exist inside the nucleus
C. Can exist both inside and outside the nucleus
D. Do not know

Which one of the following radiation possesses maximum penetrating power:

A. X-rays
B. B-rays
C. γ-rays
D. All have the equal penetrating powe

Neutron and proton are commonly known as:

A. Nucleon
B. Meson
C. Boson
D. Quartz

Antimatter consists of:

A. Antiproton
B. Antineutron
C. Positron
D. All of above

For chain reaction to build up the size of the radioactive target should be:

A. Greater than the critical size
B. Less than the critical size
C. Equal to the critical size
D. All of above can build up a change reaction

One AMU is equal to:

A. 1.66 x 10-27kg
B. 166 x 10-15ng
C. 166 x 10-20g
D. All of above

During fusion of hydrogen into helium:

A. Energy is absorbed
B. Energy is released
C. Mass is increased due to energy absorption
D. Mass is reduced due to the energy released

Which one is not a type of dynamic equilibrium:

A. Rotational equilibrium
B. Translational equilibrium
C. Static equilibrium
D. Both A and C are corret answer

The fission chain reaction in a nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing:

A. Iron rods
B. Graphite rods
C. Cadmium rods
D. Platinum rods

Average energy required to remove one nucleon from the nucleus is called:

A. Binding energy per nucleon
B. Energy of decay
C. Destruction energy
D. All of abov

Radioactive decay obeys which one of the following law:

A. N=Noe-λt
B. N=Noeλt
C. N=Noe-λt/2
D. No=N(1+eλt)

The diameter of an atom is approximately:

A. 10-12m
B. 10-11m
C. 10-10m
D. 10-14mA. 10-12m
B. 10-11m
C. 10-10m
D. 10-14m

The bombardment of nitrogen with alpha particles will produce:

A. Neutron
B. Proton
C. Electron
D. Positron

Mass defect per nucleon is:

A. The binding energy of the nucleus
B. Packing fraction
C. The average energy of the nucleus
D. All of above

Nuclear forces exist between:

A. Proton-proton
B. Proton-neutron
C. Neutron-neutron
D. All of the above

Transuranic elements have an atomic number:

A. Greater than 72
B. Greater than 82
C. Greater than 92
D. Greater than 102

The energy liberated when one atom of U-235 undergoes fission reaction is:

A. 200MeV
B. 40MeV
C. 30MeV
D. 20MeV

Which one of the following radiation possesses maximum penetrating power:

A. X-rays
B. B-rays
C. γ-rays
D. All have the equal penetrating powe

Neutron and proton are commonly known as:

A. Nucleon
B. Meson
C. Boson
D. Quartz

Antimatter consists of:

A. Antiproton
B. Antineutron
C. Positron
D. All of above

One AMU is equal to:

A. 1.66 x 10-27kg
B. 166 x 10-15ng
C. 166 x 10-20g
D. All of above

In the nucleus of uranium, the number of neutrons will be:

A. 92
B. 235
C. 143
D. Different for different isotopes

Which one is not a type of dynamic equilibrium:

A. Rotational equilibrium
B. Translational equilibrium
C. Static equilibrium
D. Both A and C are corret answer

The fission chain reaction in a nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing:

A. Iron rods
B. Graphite rods
C. Cadmium rods
D. Platinum rods

Radioactive decay obeys which one of the following law:

A. N=Noe-λt
B. N=Noeλt
C. N=Noe-λt/2
D. No=N(1+eλt)

The diameter of an atom is approximately:

A. 10-12m
B. 10-11m
C. 10-10m
D. 10-14m

Mass defect per nucleon is:

A. The binding energy of the nucleus
B. Packing fraction
C. The average energy of the nucleus
D. All of above are one and the same thing

Nuclear forces exist between:

A. Proton-proton
B. Proton-neutron
C. Neutron-neutron
D. All of the above

Transuranic elements have an atomic number:

A. Greater than 72
B. Greater than 82
C. Greater than 92
D. Greater than 102

Radioactivity is a ______ (A) Spontaneous activity (B) Chemical property:

A. A & B
B. B & C
C. C & A
D. A B & C

A mass spectrograph (spectrometer) sorts out:

A. Molecules
B. Ions
C. Elements
D. Isotopes

Nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic number are:

A. Isotopes
B. Isobars
C. Isotones
D. Isomers

Mass of neutron is:

A. 1.67 x 10-31 kg
B. 1.67 x 10-27 kg
C. 9.1 x 10-31 kg
D. 1.67 x 10-19 kg

A particle having the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton is called a:

A. Antiproton
B. Positron
C. Gamma rays
D. Photon

The charge on neutron is:

A. Plus 1.6 x 10-19C
B. Zero
C. Minus 1.6 x 10-19C
D. No definite charge

The charge on an electron was determine by:

A. Ampere
B. Maxwell
C. Millikan
D. Thomson

Which one of the following radiations possesses maximum velocity:

A. α-rays
B. β-rays
C. γ-rays
D. All of above have the same speed

Various types of cancer are treated by:

A. Cobalt-60
B. Strontium-90
C. Carbon-14
D. Nickel-63

The path of alpha particle is:

A. Rectilinear
B. Curved
C. Zig-zag or erratic
D. Elliptical

During an encounter with an atom alpha particle knocks out:

A. Protons
B. Electrons
C. Neutrons
D. Nothing

Pair production takes place in the vicinity of a heavy nucleus so that:

A. Net energy is conserved
B. Net charge is conserved
C. Net momentum is conserved
D. All of the above

Radioactive materials can be identified by measuring their:

A. Hardness
B. Density
C. Mass
D. Half life

Ina liquid metal fast breeder reactor, the type of uranium used is:

A. 92U235
B. 92U238
C. 92U234
D. 92U239

During the fission process a large amount of:

A. Heat energy is released
B. Nuclear energy is released
C. Chemical energy is released
D. Light energy is released

The unit of radioactivity curie is equal t:

A. 3.74 x 109 disintegration per sec
B. 3.70 x 1010 disintegration per sec
C. 3.55 x 1010 disintegration per sec
D. 3.60 x 1010 disintegration per sec

An alpha particle can produce fluorescence in:

A. ZnS
B. Barium platinocyanide
C. Calcium tungstate
D. All of above

Geiger counter is suitable for:

A. Fast counting
B. Extremely fast counting
C. Slow counting
D. All situations

Strontium-90 is used as:

A. α-particle source
B. β-particle source
C. γ-rays source
D. Neutron source

An alpha particle in a single encounter:

A. Loses a small fraction of its energy
B. Losses most of its energy
C. Loses no energy at all
D. Loses all of its energy

T.V sets and microwave ovens emit:

A. X-rays
B. α-rays
C. β-rays
D. γ-rays

Alpha particle ionizes an atom:

A. Through direct collision
B. Through electrostatic attraction
C. Through electrostatic repulsion
D. All of above

The charge on alpha particles is:

A. Plus one
B. Plus two
C. Minus two
D. Minus one

Pair production cannot take place in a vacuum as:

A. Mass is not conserved
B. Energy is not conserved
C. Momentum is not conserved
D. The chargee is not conserved

Beta particles ionize an atom:

A. Due to the electrostatic force of attraction
B. Due to the electrostatic force of repulsion
C. Due to a direct collision
D. Due to the gravitational force

The charge on beta particle is:

A. 1
B. -1
C. +2
D. -2

X-rays are electromagnetic waves like:

A. Light waves
B. Heat waves
C. Microwaves
D. γ-rays

The most useful tracer is:

A. Sr-90
B. I-131
C. CA-41
D. C-14

Which one of the following possesses greater penetration power:

A. α-rays
B. β-rays
C. γ-rays
D. Neutron-rays

CFC is used in:

A. Refrigeration
B. Aerosol spray
C. Plastic foam industry
D. All of above

In scientific notation, numbers are expressed in:

A. Power of ten
B. Powers of two
C. Reciprocal
D. Decimal

How many types of units are in SI:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

The number of categories in which physical quantities are divided is:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Which one is not a branch of physical sciences:

A. Chemistry
B. Astronomy
C. Geology
D. Biology

Radiations are used for the treatment of skin of a patient is:

A. Alpha rays
B. Gamma rays
C. Beta rays
D. X-rays

Which of the following will be a better shield against gamma rays:

A. Ordinary water
B. Heavy water
C. Lead
D. Aluminium

Pair production can take place only with:

A. X-rays
B. Gamma rays
C. UV-rays
D. IR-rays

A device for producing high-velocity nuclei is:

A. Cloud chamber
B. Linear accelerator
C. A mass spectrograph
D. Wilson cloud chamber

The dimension of force is:

A. MLT-1
B. MLT-2
C. ML-1T
D. ML-1T-2

Number of significant figures in 0.0173 is:

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2

The error in measurement may occur due to:

A. The inexperience of a person
B. The faulty apprentice
C. Inappropriate method
D. Due to all reasons in A, B and C

Prefix deca represents:

A. 10 Raised to power 1
B. 10 Raised to power 2
C. 10 Raised to power 3
D. 10 Raised to power -1

1024 can be written in scientific notation as:

A. 1.024×103
B. 2 Raised to power 10
C. 0.000976
D. 1/0.00097

Which one is the highest power multiple:

A. Giga
B. Beta
C. Mega
D. Deca

Steradian is the SI unit of:

A. Plane angle
B. Solid angle
C. Both plane angle and solid angle
D. Neither plane angle nor solid angle

Absolute uncertainty in a measurement depends:

A. The magnitude of the measurement
B. Least count of the instrument
C. Percentage error in the measurement
D. All of a, b and C

SI unit of the coefficient of viscosity is:

A. Kg.m.S-1
B. Kg m-1.S-1
C. Kg.m.S
D. Kg-1.m-1.S-1

Which equation is not dimensionally correct:

A. E=mc2
B. Vf=Vi+at
C. S=Vt2
D. S=1/2at2

ML-1 T-2 is the dimension of:

A. Force
B. Pressure
C. Momentum
D. Energy

Zero error of the instrument is a type of:

A. Random error
B. Personal error
C. Systematic error
D. Classified error

Which one is the dimensionally correct equation:

A. f=vt
B. S=Vit+1/2at2
C. V=St
D. V=f/t

Which one is the correct representation of the unit of pressure:

A. Newton/Meter2
B. newton/meter2
C. Newton/meter2
D. newton/Meter2

Which one is the derived quantity in SI units:

A. Electric current
B. Electric charge
C. Plane angle
D. Amount of substance

One light year is equal to:

A. 9.5x1015m
B. 9.5x1015sec
C. 9.5x1015Km
D. 9.5x1015cm

How many main frontiers of fundamental science:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Unit of G is:

A. Nm2Kg2
B. Nm2Kg
C. Nm2Kg-2
D. None

One pico stands for:

A. 10 raised to power -15
B. 10 raised to power -12
C. 10 raised to power -9
D. 10 raised to power -6

Geostationary satellite completes one rotation around the earth in:

A. 3 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

The radius of geostationary orbit from the centre of the earth is nearly:

A. 42000km
B. 36000km
C. 24000 km
D. 18000 km

The critical speed of an artificial satellite is:

A. 8 Kms-1
B. 8.1 Kms-1
C. 7.9 Kms-1
D. 8 ms-1

The rotational K.E of the hoop is equal to the:

A. its translational K.E
B. half than its translational K.E
C. double than its translational K.E
D. four times than its translational K.E

The number 76.85 is rounded off up to two significant figures as:

A. 76.8
B. 77
C. 76.9
D. None of these

To reduce the uncertainty in the timing experiment:

A. Highly precise instrument
B. Conduct at room temperature
C. Count number of vibration
D. Both a and C

The number of significant figures in 5.400:

A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. None

Centripetal force performs:

A. Maximum work
B. Minimum work
C. Negative work
D. No work

The relation between linear and angular acceleration is:

A. a = a x r
B. a = r x a
C. a = a x r
D. r = a x a

The circumference subtends an angle:

A. π radian
B. 2π radian
C. π/2 radian
D. 4π radian

The period of a circular motion is given by:

A. T = πv
B. T = πw
C. T = 2πr
D. T = 2πr/v

One radian is equal to:

A. 67.3°
B. 57.3°
C. 87.3°
D. 60°

A body can have constant velocity when it follows a:

A. Elliptical path
B. Circular path
C. Parabolic path
D. Rectilinear path

The span of the broad jump depends upon:

A. Mass of the jumper
B. Height of jump
C. Angle of projection
D. None

In case of planets the necessary acceleration is provided by:

A. Gravitational force
B. Frictional force
C. Coulomb force
D. Centripetal force

The planet nearest to the earth is:

A. Venus
B. Mercury
C. Uranus
D. Sun

A satellite moving around the earth constitutes:

A. An inertial frame of reference
B. Non-inertial frame
C. Neither inertial nor non-inertial
D. Both inertial and non-inertial

Who discovered the inverse square law for gravity:

A. Einstein
B. Galileo
C. Newtons
D. Plank

The angular speed of seconds hand of a watch in rads-1 is:

A. π
B. π/2
C. π/30
D. π/180

In an angular motion, Newton’s second law of motion is:

A. F=ma
B. F=τp/It
C. Στ = I α
D. All above

Terminal velocity is given by equation:

A. Vt = gr2ρ
B. Vt = 2gr2/9ρ
C. Vt = gr2/9ρ
D. Vt = 9gr2/2ρ

Terminal velocity is:

A. Uniform
B. Maximum
C. Uniform and maximum
D. Neither uniform nor maximum

The dimensions of the coefficient of viscosity are:

A. ML-1T-1
B. M2L1T1
C. ML1T-1
D. M2L-1T-1

Coefficient of viscosity of honey is greater than:

A. Milk
B. Water
C. Charcoal
D. Water

If a body of mass 10 kg is allowed to fall freely, its weight becomes:

A. 0
B. 89N
C. 9.8 N
D. 10N

Minimum number of communication satellites required to cover the whole earth is:

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

Also read: General Knowledge MCQs and solve English MCQs