Important Microbiology MCQs with answers for all Microbiology test and exams preparation online.
Microbiology MCQs with Answers
The causative organism of syphilis is:
A. Borrelia burgolorferi
B. Chalamydia trachomatis
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. Treponema pallidum
Bacteria reproduce mainly by:
A. Budding
B. Binary fission
C. Sporing
D. Bacterial components
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is:
A. VDRL
B. Kahn’s test
C. TPHA
D. Widal test
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their:
A. cell wall
B. cell membrane
C. Nuclear material
D. Mesosomes
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is:
A. Schick test
B. Dick test
C. Casoni’s test
D. Charles’ test
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor:
A. M protein
B. Pyrogenic exotoxin
C. Streptolysin 0
D. Carbohydrate cell wall
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is:
A. Fimbria
B. Flagella
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis:
A. FTAB
B. Widal test
C. Wasserman test
D. Kahn test
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except:
A. Outer membrane proteins
B. IgA Protease
C. M-Proteins
D. Pili
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
Staphylococci typically occur in:
A. Pairs
B. Chains
C. Tetrads
D. Irregular clusters
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid:
A. Widal test
B. Eleks test
C. Mantoux test
D. Wasserman test
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are:
A. Psychrophiles
B. Mesophiles
C. Cryophiles
D. Thermophiles
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus:
A. Mycobacterium bacilli
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Neisseria gonorrhea
D. All of the above
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by:
A. Diphtheria
B. Typhoid fever
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Syphilis
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is:
A. Spleen
B. Gall Bladder
C. Liver
D. Salivary gland
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining:
A. Blue color
B. Red color
C. Green
D. Colorless
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate:
A. Bacterial flagella
B. Spirochetes
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium:
A. 2 degree
B. 0 degree
C. 27 degrees
D. 37 degrees
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from:
A. Feaces
B. Blood
C. Urine
D. All of the above
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true:
A. Unicellular
B. Free living
C. Having either DNA or RNA
D. Cell wall containing muramic acid
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides:
A. Strep. Mutans
B. Strep. pyogenes
C. Peptostreptococcus
D. Enterococcus
Tuberculin test screens for:
A. Hemoral immunity
B. Cell mediated immunity
C. Complement function
D. Phagocyte dysfunction
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except:
A. Metachromatic granules
B. Refractile granules
C. Babes Ernst granules
D. Voluntin granules
Widal test is specific for:
A. Plague
B. Leprosy
C. Pemhigoid
D. Typhoid
Thumb print appearance in culture film smear is seen:
1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Brucella species
3. Bordetelia pertussis
4. Clostridium weichii
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria:
A. Loefflers serum slope
B. Mc Conkey
C. Saborauds agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to:
A. Pili
B. Cell Membrane
C. Its intracellular location
D. Cytolytic enzymes
Vibrio cholera was discovered by:
A. Koch
B. Medintoff
C. John snow
D. Virchow
Staphylococcus does not causes:
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Abscess
C. Scarlet fever
D. Pneumonia
True about VDRL test:
A. Non – Specific
B. Slide flocculation test
C. Best followed for drug therapy
D. All of the above
Actinomycetes is:
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Fungus
D. A yeast like form
Q fever is caused by:
A. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
B. R. prowozekii
C. R. quintana
D. C. burnetti
Drumstick appearance is seen in:
A. Cl. tetani
B. Cl. tetanomorphum
C. Cl. sphenoids
D. All of the above
Nagglers reaction detects:
A. Coagulase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Lecithinase
D. None of the above
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by:
A. CD 4*
B. CD 8*
C. B – lymphocytes
D. None of the above
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by:
A. Niacin test
B. AFB staining
C. Pas staining
D. None of the above
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except:
A. Dischange from nasal mucosa
B. From open sore
C. Through intact skin
D. Through breast milk
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on:
A. M Protein
B. Polysaccharide C antigen
C. Type of lipid in cell membrane
D. Physiological properties
Chlamydia causes all of the following except:
A. Trachoma
B. Non-gonococcal urethritis
C. Pneumonia
D. Parotitis
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except:
A. Neisseria meningitides
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Legionella pneumophila
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except:
A. Through plasmids
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. Through conjugation
Negative staining is used to demonstrate:
A. Bacterial spore
B. Bacterial Flagella
C. Bacterial capsule
D. Bacterial fimbriae
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
A. Gram positive organisms
B. Gram negative organisms
C. Mycoplasma
D. Virus infections
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli:
A. Aryl sulphatase test
B. Niacin test
C. Neutral red test
D. Catalase peroxidase test
Cough plate method is used to identify:
A. Y. pestis
B. Pertussis
C. Mycoplasma
D. M-Tuberculosis
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci:
A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group D
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is:
A. Transduction
B. Translation
C. Lysogeny
D. Conjugation
Fimbriae are demonstrated by:
A. Culture
B. Gram stain
C. Biochemical reaction
D. Haemagglutination test
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is:
A. Cardiolipin
B. Plasminogen
C. Palmityl lecithin
D. Serine
The most frequently encountered clostridia species in gas gangrene is:
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium welchii
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Clostridium difficile
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human:
A. Synovial fluid
B. Myocardium
C. Cardiac valves
D. Vascular intima
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Typhoid fever
C. Rheumatie fever
D. Rickettsial fever
Following are the characteristics of Vincent’s angina EXCEPT:
A. Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
B. Caused due to malnutrition
C. A symbiotic infection
D. Caused by leptospira interrogans
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to:
A. Invasion
B. Endotoxin
C. Exotoxin
D. Capsule
Leptospirosis, all are true except:
A. Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
B. Onset of IgM in 2 days
C. Incubation period is 10 days
D. It is sensitive to penicillin
Lepromin test is useful for:
A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Treatment plan
D. Epidemiology
Salivary peroxidise system is known to be effective agianst:
A. Actinomyces viscosus
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
C. Streptococcus mutans
D. Veilonella parvula
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except:
A. Tannerella
B. Porphyromonas
C. Buccae
D. Prevotella
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is:
A. Viral stomatitis
B. Diptheria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Typhoid fever
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich’s postulates:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. None of the above
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a:
A. Bunch of a
B. Chain of beads
C. Drum stick
D. Safely pin
In initial stages of tyhoid, salmonella can be detected in:
A. Feacus
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. All of the above
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are:
A. Haemorrhage
B. perforation
C. Osteomyelitis
D. All of the above
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is:
A. Capsule
B. Fimbria
C. Flagella
D. None of the above
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except:
A. It is composed of DNA
B. It doe not contain histones
C. It is circular
D. Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except:
A. Cl. difficile
B. Staphylococcus
C. Cl. welchii
D. Cl. botulinum
Anaerobic bacteria grow:
A. in the presence of oxygen
B. in the presence of nitrogen
C. in the absence of oxygen
D. differential media
Phage conversion is required for:
A. Tularemia
B. Diptheria
C. Gonorrhoea
D. All o f the above
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of:
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. TB
D. Tyhoid
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Pseudomonas
C. Shigella
D. Klebsiella
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except:
A. Though plasmids
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. through conjugation
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in:
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. E.coli
D. Gonococci
which of the following is anaerobic:
A. E.coli
B. Bacteroides
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following:
A. Salk vaccine
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Sabin’s oral vaccine
D. All of the above
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are:
A. Salmonella
B. Klebsiella
C. Escherichia
D. Paracolons
Malignant pustule is referred to:
A. Facio-cervical actinomycosis
B. Cutaneous anthrax
C. Infected squamous cell carcinoma
D. None of the above
One of the following is a zoonotic disease:
A. Anthrax
B. Typhoid
C. Bacillary dysentery
D. Cholera
Actinomycosis is caused by:
A. Fungus
B. Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
C. Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
D. Retrovirus
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli:
A. Acridine orange
B. Thioglavin
C. Congo red
D. Auramine and Rhodamine
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of:
A. Malaria
B. Whooping cough
C. Gas gangrene
D. Wool sorters disease
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with:
A. Decease in virulence
B. Loss of infectivity
C. Inability to spread through tissue
D. increase in invasiveness
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in:
A. Spore formation
B. Decreased virulence
C. Prevent their phagocytosis
D. Oxygen effect
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts of:
A. Synapse
B. Muscle
C. Brain
D. Spinal card
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is:
A. Neisseria gonorrhea
B. Escherichia coli
C. T-strain mycoplasma
D. Streptococcus fecalis
Growth factor needed for Salmonella:
A. Tryptophan
B. Niacin
C. B-12
D. Citrate
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by:
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Haemolytic streptococci
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Nisseria
The diagnosis of gonorrhoea is established by:
A. Compliment fixation tests
B. Pili agglutination tests
C. Haemagglutination tests
D. All of the above tests
What is the transport medium for cholera:
A. Tellurite Medium
B. Cary Blair Medium
C. Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium
D. B & C
Which organism causes prosthetic valve endocarditis within 60 days of surgery:
A. Streptococcus Viridans
B. Staphylococcus epidermis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Fungus
The diagnostic investigation for syphilis is:
A. TPI test
B. VDRL test
C. TPHA test
D. FTAB test
E. Both C & D
False +ve for VDRL is seen in:
A. Yaws
B. Lepromatous Leprosy
C. Malaria
D. All of the above
Causative organism for gas gangrene:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium welchii
A. Coli
C. Strep. Faecalis
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to:
A. Theta toxin
B. Lecithinase
C. Desmolase
D. Cytokinin
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries:
A. M. leprae
B. M. avium intracellulare
C. M. tuberculosis
D. Kansasi
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with:
A. Ziel Nelson
B. Kin Young stain
C. Auramine-Rhodamine stain
D. Giemsa stain
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in:
A. Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
B. Tail of guinea pig
C. Testes of albino rats
D. Testes of guinea pig
Streptococcus is classified based on:
A. M Protein
B. Cultural characteristics
C. Bile Solubility
D. Cell wall carbohydrate
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by:
A. Type of hemolysis
B. Gram staining
C. Growth characteristics
D. Bile solubility
Borelia vincenti is a:
A. Mycoplasma
B. Mycobacteria
C. Spirochaete
D. Chlamydia
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in:
A. Tissue culture
B. Chick embryos
C. Artificial media
D. Rabbit testis only
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of:
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Yeast
D. Protozoa
Pasteur developed the vaccine for:
A. Anthrax
B. Rabies
C. Cholera
D. All of the above
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is:
A. Wilson Blair medium
B. Bile broth
C. Bordet Gengou medium
D. Robertson cooked meat medium
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction:
A. E.coli
B. Haemophilus
C. Proteus
D. Staphylococcus
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by:
A. Transduction
B. Translation
C. Cell fusion
D. Conjugation
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to:
A. Enterotoxin A
B. Enterotoxin B
C. Enterotoxin D
D. Enterotoxin F
Which of the following is obligate aerobe:
A. Pseudomonas aerogenosa
A. coli
B. Proteus
C. diphtheria
Erysipelas is caused by:
A. Group B staphylococci
B. Group A steptococci
C. Gonococci
D. Pneumococci
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Donovania granulomatis
C. Bartonella henselae
D. Hemophilia ducreya
Which one of the following enteric organisms is anaerogenic and non motile:
A. Shigella sonnei
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Klebsiella pneumonia
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is:
A. Streptococcus sanguis
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Treponema denticola
D. Spirochetes
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Treponjema pertenue
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Borrelia vincenti
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by:
A. Gram’s stain
B. H & E stain
C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D. PAS stain
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by:
A. Dextran
B. Epithelial cells
C. Bacteria
D. Sucrose
About Bacteroids True are all Except:
A. Susceptible to many antibiotics
B. Present mainly in mixed infections
C. Most common species is B fragilis
D. Bile resistant anerobes
Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
A. Produces heat stable enterotoxin
B. Causes Shangai fever
C. Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
D. Does not produce any pigment
Actinomycosis is a:
A. Aerobic bacterial disease
B. Anaerobic bacterial disease
C. Aerobic fungal disease
D. Anaerobic fungal disease
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except:
A. Varicella Zoster Virus
B. Papilloma Virus
C. Influenza Virus
D. Human immunodeficiency virus
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except:
A. Aquatic bodies are main habitat
B. It can replicate in amoeba
C. Urine test is a reliable method
D. Person to person transmission
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is:
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization:
A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclave
C. Kochs sterilizer
D. hot air oven
The chemotactic factor is:
A. C2a
B. C3b
C. C4a
D. C5a
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is:
A. Atopic allergy
B. Serum sickness
C. Transfusion reaction
D. Contact dermatitis
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is:
A. Ethylene oxide gas
B. dry heat
C. chemical vapour
D. All of the above
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify:
A. Mycoplasma
B. Chlamydiae
C. Rickettsiae
D. Spirochaetes
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is:
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgA
Bacterial spores are destroyed by:
A. Boiling at 100°C
B. Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
C. Autoclave
D. Pasteurisation
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis:
A. Delayed reaction
B. Immediate reaction
C. passive transfer by serum
D. None of the above
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the:
A. Disinfectant
B. Moist heat sterilisation
C. Antibiotics
D. Dry heat sterilization
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except:
A. Incubator
B. anaerobic jar
C. Refrigerator
D. Centrifuge
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following:
A. Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
B. Colicigenic factor (Col)
C. Fertility factor (F+)
D. All of the above
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to:
A. Kill mircobes
B. Remove microbes
C. Inhibit microbial growth
D. Dehydrate microbial cells
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva:
A. Lysozyme
B. Secretozyme
C. Albumin
D. Isozyme
Most antibodies are produced in the:
A. Heart and the liver
B. Brain and the meninges
C. Thymus and the appendix
D. Spleen and the lymph nodes
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is:
A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgA
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in:
A. Golgi body
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria
Which of the following is an enrichment medium:
A. Blood agar
B. Selenite F Broth
C. Mac Conkey agar
D. Nutrient Broth
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is:
A. Hepatitis vaccination
B. Gamma globulin injection
C. Immune blood transfusion
D. Placental transfer of antibodies
Disinfection frees the surface from:
A. Vegetative forms
B. Spore forms
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for:
A. Treponema
B. Actinomyces
C. Streptococcus
D. Mycobacterium
Immunoglobulins ar secreted by:
A. Macrophages
B. Plasma cells
C. T-cells
D. Neutrophils
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of:
A. Anaphylactic
B. Angioneurotic edema
C. Cell-mediated immunity
D. Systemic arthus reaction
Secretory Ig is:
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgD
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the:
A. VL domian
B. CL domian
C. CH1 domian
D. CH2 domian
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is:
A. Urticaria
B. Asthma
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Arthus reaction
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins:
A. are proteins
B. are heat labile
C. are highly antigenic
D. activate complement by the alternate pathway
B.C.G untrue is:
A. live vaccine
B. T.B vaccine
C. Orally administered
D. All of the above
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization:
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
Exaltation is:
A. Decreased virulence
B. Increased Virulence
C. No change
D. None
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called:
A. Monotrichate
B. Peritrichate
C. Bipolar
D. Lophotrichate
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining:
A. Gram’s staining
B. Fontana’s staining
C. India ink preparation
D. Zheil-Neilson’s staining
Noguchi’s medium is used for:
A. Bordetella
B. Brucella
C. Borrelia
D. None of the above
Smith noguchi’s media is used for:
A. Salmonella
B. Klebsiella
C. Spirochetes
D. Bacillus
Graft versus host reaction is caused by:
A. B-Lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Leukocytes
Sporulation occurs in:
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Decline phase
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Micrococcus
C. Sarcina
D. Aerococcus
Hospital dressing is best disposed by:
A. Incineration
B. Dumping
C. Autoclaving
D. Burying
Operation theatres are sterilized by:
A. Carbolic acid spraying
B. Washing with soap and water
C. Formaldehyde fumigation
D. ETO gas
Influenza is caused by:
A. Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
B. Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
C. Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
D. Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affets:
A. Red blood cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
D. Mast cells
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in:
A. 1 week
B. 6 week
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Viruses can be cultured in all except:
A. Chick embryo
B. Blood agar
C. Guinea pigs
D. Cell culture
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is:
A. Cryptococcosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Aspergilosis
Cytopathic effect is shown by:
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Spirochete
D. Anaerobe
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates:
A. Acute infection
B. Carrier state
C. Prodromal phase
D. Convalescence
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following:
A. Boiling
B. Ethanol
C. Cidex
D. All of the above
Certain viruses have been isolated in crystalline form and have been found to be:
A. Nucleotides
B. Phospholipids
C. Scleroproteins
D. Nucleoproteins
Pigs are important source of:
A. Japanese encephalitis
B. Kuru
C. Yellow fever
D. Rabies
Incubation pariod of herpes zoster is:
A. 7-14 days
B. 1 months
C. 1-2 years
D. 3-6 months
Human immune deficiency virus is ____virus:
A. Rheo
B. Retro
C. Rhabdo
D. Flavi
Which of the following is a RNA virus:
A. Measles virus
B. Herpes Virus
C. Papavo virus
D. Adeno virus
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human:
A. HBCAg
B. HBeAg
C. Anti-HBC
D. Anti-HBS
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is:
A. Bunya virus
B. Reo virus
C. Calci virus
D. Rhabdo virus
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is:
A. Viral interference
B. Mutation
C. Supervision
D. Permutation
Which does not have a viral etiology:
A. Carcinoma Cervix
B. Hepatoma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates:
A. Simple carriers
B. Late convalescence
C. High infectivity
D. Carrier status
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly:
A. Gastrointestinal tract
B. Nasal mucosa
C. Lung
D. Skin
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage:
A. HBV
B. HCV
C. HDV
D. HEV
Anti HBsAB indicates:
A. Resistance to hepatitis B
B. Acute infection
C. Good prognosis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in:
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 9 weeks
D. 12 weeks
The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by:
A. Interferon production
B. Toxin production
C. Lymphocytes production
D. Neutrophils production
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix:
A. Type 6,12,18
B. 16,18,31
C. 6,8,11
D. 3,10,19
Following is a retrovirus:
A. Immunodeficiency virus
B. Influenza
C. Polio virus
D. Hepatitis virus
Which of the following viruses does not infect salivary glands:
A. Echo virus
B. Hepatitis C
C. HIV
D. Orthomyxovirus
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants:
A. Mycobacteria
B. Spore
C. Prions
D. Coccidia
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of:
A. Protein synthesis
B. DNA/RNA replication
C. When virus enters the cell
D. Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Dengue Haemorrhagic fever is caused by:
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Parasite
D. Bacteria superadded on virus
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is:
A. Ribonuclease
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Restriction endonuclease
Dengue virus belongs to:
A. Flavi virus
B. Togaviridae
C. Reoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine:
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Hepatitis B
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by:
A. IgM antibodies in serum
B. Isolation form stool
C. Culture from blood
D. Isolation from bile
The world german measles is applied for:
A. Rubella
B. Rubeola
C. Herpes simplex
D. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with:
A. Helper T lymphocytes
B. Natural killer cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Macrophages
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is:
A. Carcinoma
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. Melanoma
D. Ewing’s sarcoma
EBV is responsible for all except:
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Hepatoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis
patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. CMV
D. EBV
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is:
A. HBc Ag
B. HBs Ag
C. Hbe Ag
D. HBx Ag
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to:
A. CD8 T-cells
B. CD4 T-cells
C. B – cells
D. NK – cells
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is:
A. Adeno
B. Hepatitis
C. EB virus
D. Parvo virus
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is:
A. Less sensitive less specific
B. More sensitive, more specific
C. Less sensitive, more specific
D. More sensitive, less specific
Which of the following is not a pox virus:
A. Cowpox
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Small pox
D. chicken pox
Australian antigen is:
A. HB Ag
B. HBs AG
C. HBV
D. None of the above
EBV causes all except:
A. Carcinoma of nasopharynx
B. Papilloma
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Burkitt’s lymphoma
True about HIV are all except:
A. DNA virus
B. Attacks CD4 cells
C. Macrophages are the reservoir
D. Decrease CD4 count in late stages
All are oncogenic except:
A. EB virus
B. Papilloma virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Varicella zoster virus
DNA covering material in a virus is called as:
A. Capsomere
B. Capsid
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Envelope
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups:
A. Picorna viruses
B. Herpes viruses
C. Hepadana viruses
D. Flavi viruses
Rabies virus:
A. Cytotropic
B. Dermatotropic
C. Chromophilic
D. Neurotropic
The Dane particle is the:
A. HBV
B. IgG anti HAV
C. Delta Virus
D. HBC Ag
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except:
A. Saliva
B. Needle prick injury
C. Blood transmission
D. Sexual intercourse
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is:
A. 24 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 3 months
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a:
A. ELISA
B. Immunodot
C. RIPA
D. Western Blot
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except:
A. Glycogen mass
B. Chromatid bars
C. Eccentric nucleus
D. Refractile nucleus
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except:
A. coli
B. nana
A. gingivalis
B. histolytica
Causative organism of Kalahazar is:
A. Plasmodium ovaie
B. Leishman donovani
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Toxoplasma
Black water fever is caused by:
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Microfilaria
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is:
A. Indirect hemagglutination
B. ELISA
C. Counter immune electroporesis
D. Microscopy
Dematophytes are fungi infecting:
A. Subcutaneous tissue
B. Systemic organs
C. Nails, hair and skin
D. Superficial skin and deep tissue
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is:
A. Brain – heart infusion
B. Sabouraud’s
C. Sabouraud’s plus antibiotics
D. Any medium incubated at 35-37°C
The culture media for fungus is:
A. Tellurite medium
B. NNN medium
C. Chocolate agar medium
D. Sabourauds medium
Opportunistic infection is caused by:
A. Penicillium
B. Mucor
C. Aspergillus
D. All of the above
The following is not true of Candida albicans:
A. Yeast like fungus
B. Forms Chlamydospores
C. Blastomeres seen in isolates
D. Seen in immunocompromised
Culture media of candida is:
A. Methylene blue dextrose agar
B. Saboraud’s medium
C. Pingolevin
D. All of the above
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in:
A. Ascariasis
B. Tapeworm
C. Hood worm
D. Ascariasis and tapeworm
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to:
A. Hook worm
B. Thread worm
C. Ascaris
D. Guinea worm
Thread worm is:
A. Enterobius
B. Ancylostoma
C. Ascaris
D. Necator
Which worm is longest:
A. T. Solium
B. T. Saginata
C. Hook worm
D. A. Lumbricoides
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by:
A. cats
B. Dogs
C. Rats
D. Cow
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped:
A. Dot
B. Comma
C. Banana
D. Sickle
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by:
A. M. Kansasii
B. M. ulcerans
C. M. chelonae
D. M. smegmatis
Sleeping sickness is caused by:
A. House fly
B. Sand fly
C. Tick
D. Reduvid bug
Probiotic organism used:
A. E coli
B. Bifido bacteria
C. Staphylococcus
D. Salmonella
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection:
A. Giardia lambella
B. Isopora belli
C. Balantidium coli
D. Taenia solium
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is:
A. 2:1
B. 1:2
C. 3:1
D. 1:3
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by:
A. Candida albicans
B. Mucor
C. Cryptococcus
D. Aspergillus
Man is the only reservoir for:
A. Salmonella
B. Camphylobacter jejuni
A. histolytica
C. Y. enterocolitica
Schuffner’s dots are seen in infection due to:
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito:
A. Sporozoite
B. Gametocyte
C. Merozoite
D. Zygote
:Which of the following is not transmitted by lice:
A. Trench fever
B. Relapsing fever
C. Q fever
D. Epidemic typhus
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except:
A. Hemolysis
B. Malabsorption
C. Spleen sequestration
D. Bone marrow depression
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to:
A. Zygomycetes
B. Ascomycetes
C. Basidiomycetes
D. Deuteromycetes
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is:
A. 500
B. 200
C. 1000
D. 300
Leishmania is cultured in _____media:
A. Chocolate agar
B. NNN
C. Tellurite
D. Sabourauds
Common name for Trichuris trichura:
A. Round worm
B. Whip worm
C. Tape worm
D. Seat woman
Madura mycosis produces:
A. Brown to black granules
B. White to yellow granules
C. Red granules
D. No granules
Delhi boil refer to:
A. Solar Keratosis
B. Malignant pustule
C. L. Tropica sore
D. Venereal ulcer
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is:
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lungs
Hydatid cyst is:
A. Parasitic in nature
B. Fungal
C. Congenital
D. Viral
L.D bodies are seen in:
A. Kalahazar
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Malaria
D. Sleeping sickness
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by:
A. Dog tapeworm
B. Hookworm
C. Fish tapeworm
D. Threadworm
parasitic inflammation would show predominantly:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Neutrophilis
C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig:
A. Cysts in the sterile pus
B. Trophozoites in the pus
C. Cysts in the intestine
D. Trophozoites in the feces
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers:
A. Sporozoite
B. Merozoite
C. Hypnozoite
D. Gametocyte
Malaria pigment is:
A. Bilurubin
B. Haemoglobin
C. Iron
D. Haematin-globin pigment
Cysticercosis celluosae is caused by:
A. T. Solium
B. Echinococcal granuloses
C. T. Saginata
A. nana
Kolmer test is a screening test done for:
A. Syphilis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Lymphoma
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti:
A. Causes filariasis
B. Body is slender and long
C. Terminal nuclei absent
D. Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is:
A. Eosin stain
B. Haemotoxin stain
C. Ninhydrin stain
D. Blue stain
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine:
A. Tuberculosis (BCG)
B. Typhoid
C. Varicella Zoster virus
D. Cholera
Fungal infection of human beings is called as:
A. Mucorsis
B. Mycosis
C. Fungosis
D. Micromia
Germ tubes are formed mainly by:
A. Candida albicans
B. Candida stellatoidea
C. Candida tropicalis
D. Candida pseudotropicalls
Aflatoxins are produced by:
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Aspergillus flavus
D. All of the above
A sporangium contains:
A. Spherules
B. porangiospores
C. Chlamydospores
D. Oidia
Pseudohphae are seen in:
A. Alternaria
B. Aspergillus
C. Osporium
D. Candida albicans
Candida albicans causes all of the following except:
A. Endocarditis
B. Mycetoma
C. Meningitis
D. Oral thrush
Which is type II hypersensitivity:
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Delayed hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex mediated
D. Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
Negative phase is seen in ____immunity:
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Herd
D. Local
The cell wall deficient bacteria:
A. Rickettsiae
B. Mycoplasma
C. Chlamydiae
D. Ehrlichiae
Chemotactic cytokine is:
A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. IL-8
D. TNF
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes:
A. NK Cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. B cells
D. Memory B cells
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant:
A. 1-2% cetrimide
B. 100% alcohol
C. 2% Lysol
D. 5% chloroxylene
Endoscopes are sterilized by using:
A. Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Cidex
D. Gamma radiation
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT:
A. Glassware
B. Rubber tubes
C. Sharp instrument
D. Liquid paraffin
Oil and Grease are sterilized by:
A. Hot air oven
B. Auto claving
C. Irradiation
D. Ethylene dioxide
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000:
A. Secretory piece
B. H chain
C. L chain
D. J piece
Secondary response is mediated by:
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE
The reaginic antibody is:
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgE
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement:
A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are:
A. CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
B. CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
C. CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
D. CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Bacterial products
B. Toxoids
C. Vaccines
D. Antitoxins
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins:
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of:
A. Ultra violet rays
B. Ultrasonic vibrations
C. Infrared rays
D. Gamma rays
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
T cells multiplication is stimulated by:
A. Macrolin
B. Heat
C. Bovine serum
D. Phytohaemagglutinin
Killer and Helper cells are part of:
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophage
Opsonisation is by:
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. Both C & D
Antigen combining site of the antibody is:
A. Idiotope
B. Paratope
C. Epitope
D. Hapten
Function of Ig A is:
A. Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
B. Circulating antibody
C. Kills virus infected cells
D. Activates macrophages
Virus infected cell is killed by:
A. Interferons
B. Macrophages
C. Neutrophils
D. Autolysis
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by:
A. Plasma cells
B. Activated macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. Platelet
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with:
A. IgM antibodies
B. Lysozyme
C. Mast cells
D. IgA antibodies
The best skin disinfectant is:
A. Chlorhexdine
B. Alcohol
C. Savlon
D. None of the above
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria:
A. Loefflers serum slope
B. Mc Conkey
C. Saboraud agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen medium
Dorset’s egg medium is used for cultivation of:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Gonococcus
D. Mycobacterium
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is:
A. Transformation
B. Translation
C. Conjugation
D. Lysogeny
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of:
A. -20°C to -7°C
B. -7°C to + 20°C
C. 25°C to 40°C
D. 55°C to 80°C
Spores are disinfected by:
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Betapropiolactone
C. Formaldehyde
D. Hexachlorophen
E. Both A & C
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to:
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Mutation
D. conjugation
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from:
A. Pseudomonas
A. coli
B. Proteus
C. Staphylococcus
Endotoxins are produced by:
A. Fungi
B. Gram +ve bacteria
C. Virus
D. Gram -ve bacteria
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately:
A. 1 hour
B. 1 day
C. 1 week
D. 1 Month
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on:
A. Functional differences
B. Structural differences
C. Complemented fixation
D. None of the above
Toxoids are:
A. antigenic and toxic
B. antigenic and non-toxic
C. non-antigenic and toxic
D. non-antigenic and non-toxic
IgG has subclasses:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to:
A. Increase toxigenicity
B. Increase antigenicity
C. Reduce the antigenicity
D. reduce the toxigenicity
Characters of exotoxin include all, except:
A. Protein polysaccharide complex
B. Heat labile
C. Highly potent
D. Has specific tissue affinity
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in:
A. L-J medium
B. Robertson cooked meat medium
C. Loefflers medium
D. Sabourauds agar
Louis Pasteur is not associated with:
A. Introduction of complex media
B. Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
C. Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
D. Disproved spontaneous regression theory
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is:
A. 10%
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. 15%
Tyndallisation is carried out for:
A. One day
B. Two successive days
C. 60 minutes
D. Three successive days
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because:
A. Long wavelength
B. short wave lenght
C. Ozone
D. Heat
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a:
A. Hapten
B. Carrier
C. Super antigen
D. Toxin
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with:
A. Epinephrine
B. Steroids
C. Anti histamines
D. Antibiotics
Dry heat destroys microorganisms by:
A. Lysis
B. Oxidation
C. Hydrolysis of DNA
D. Coagulation of proteins
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is:
A. Blood agar
B. Tissue culture
C. Sabouraud’s agar
D. Thioglycollate medium
Blood agar is:
A. Simple media
B. Transport media
C. Enriched media
D. Differential media
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation:
A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Inorganic salts
D. Nucleic acids
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using:
A. 20% phenol
B. High efficiency particle arrestors
C. 40% formaldehyde vapour
D. Chlorine gas
Who first introduced solid media:
A. Louis pasteur
B. Robert koch
C. Hensen
D. Ogston
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by:
A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. UV-Radiation
D. Inspissation
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT:
A. B lymphocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. Antigen presenting cells (APC
Sterilization is a process in which:
A. Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
B. Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
C. Deactivate all pathogens not spores
D. Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
Immunoglobulin crossing placenta is:
A. Ig M
B. Ig A
C. Ig G
D. Ig D
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by:
A. Wd miller
B. Leuwenhoek
C. Robertson
D. Socranci
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans:
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM
Type of receptor present on T-cells are:
A. Ig A
B. Ig G
C. Prostaglandins
D. CD4
Hot air oven cannot be used for sterilising:
A. Clothes
B. Instruments
C. Culture media
D. Needles
Exotoxins are:
A. Lipid-polysaccharide complex
B. Protein compound
C. Lipoprotein
D. None
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by:
A. Gamma-Rays
B. X-Rays
C. Autoclaving
D. Boiling
Bacterial cell does not possess:
A. dna
B. Ribosome
C. Mitochondria
D. Cell wall
The term epitope refers to:
A. complete antigen molecule
B. Hapten
C. Immunogen
D. Smallest antigenic determinant
Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of:
A. Ultra violet rays
B. Ultrasonic vibrations
C. Infrared rays
D. Gamma rays
Complement factor through which common pathway begins:
A. C3
B. C5
C. C2
D. Protein B
Which component of the cell wall is responsible:
A. Region I
B. Region II
C. Region III
D. Boivin antigen
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Brucella
B. Mycobacterium
C. Salmonella
D. Coxiella burnetti
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is:
A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. Inspissation
D. Tyndallization
Physical sterilization was discovered by:
A. Robert Koch
B. Joeph Lister
C. John Hunter
D. Alexander flemings
The function of IgD is:
A. Antigen recognition by B cells
B. Localization protection in external secretion
C. Compliment activation
D. Reagin activity
Cell wall deficient bacteria are:
A. Escherichia Coli
B. Staphylococci
C. Spirochetes
D. Mycoplasma
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is:
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate:
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Spore formers
D. Fungus
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM:
A. Sabourauds medium
B. Agar – agar
C. Lowenstein Jensen medium
D. Loefflers serum slope
Which of the following is a live vaccine:
A. 17 D
B. Salk
C. Hepatitis
D. HDCV
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following:
A. B-cells
B. Active T cells
C. NK cells
D. Plasma cells
Grave’s disease is an example of type immunologic response:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
IL-1 is produced by:
A. Helper T cells
B. Helper B cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophages
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with:
A. MHC I
B. MHC II
C. MHC III
D. B-cell receptor
T cell matures in:
A. Payers patch
B. Lymph node
C. Thymus
D. Busra of Fabricius
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called:
A. Opsonisation
B. Chemotaxis
C. De coding
D. CFT
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as:
A. Clone
B. Epitope
C. Idiotope
D. Paratope
Immunoglobulin consists of:
A. 2 light, 2 heavy chains
B. 1 heavy, 2 light chains
C. 1 light, 1 heavy chain
D. 3 light, 1 heavy chain
Secretory piece of IgA is synthesized in:
A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Lymph nodes
D. Mucosal epithelium
VDRL is a:
A. Slide flocculation test
B. Tube flocculation test
C. Tube agglutination test
D. Latex agglutination test
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to:
A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Histiocytes
Glassware’s are sterilised by:
A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. Incineration
D. Formaldehyde
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum:
A. IgG1
B. IgG2
C. IgG3
D. IgG4
IMPORTANT: Also read All one paper mcqs and Pharmacology MCQs online.