Essential Clinical Pathology MCQs covering all key topics to assist students and professional pathologists preparing for exams.
Clinical Pathology MCQs with answers
Amyloidosis is commonly associated with :
A. Chronic osteomyelitis
B. Periostitis
C. Acute osteomyelitis
D. Multiple myeloma
Which of the following is correctly matched :
A. Coagulation necrosis Tuberculosis
B. Caseation yellow fever
C. Fat necrosis Pancreatitis
D. Gumma infarction
Hypoxic death leads to :
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative nacrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
The hormone dependent shedding of endometrium is an example of :
A. Necrosis
B. Autolysis
C. Apoptosis
D. None of the above
Primary amyloidosis occurs in :
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Hodgkin’s diseaes
D. Chronic osteomyelitis
Amyloidosis most commonly occurs in :
A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Heart
Apoptosis is :
A. Single cell necrosis
B. Intracytoplasmic accumulation
C. Degenerative change
D. Neoplastic change in the cell
Severe generalized edema is called as :
A. Myxoedema
B. Pitting edema
C. Anasarca
D. Dependent edema
Hydrolytic degeneration is characterized by :
A. Caseation
B. Coagulation
C. Liquefaction
D. Fibrinoid
Tigered effect of heart is seen in :
A. Fatty change
B. Hyaline change
C. Amy
D. Atrophy
The activation of caspases is likely to lead to :
A. Apoptotic cell death
B. Blood coagulation
C. Mitotic cell division
D. G1 to S phase of cell cycle
Which of the following is NOT true of dystrophic calcification ?
A. Occurs in damaged tissue
B. Tuberculous lesions
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Serum calcium levels are high
Dystrophic calcification are calcifications seen in :
A. Skin layers
B. Salivary glands
C. Normal tissues
D. Dead tissue
Liquefaction necrosis is commonly seen in :
A. Brain
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Spleen
Physiologic programmed cell death is termed as :
A. Apoptosis
B. Lysis
C. Autolysis
D. Autopsy
Metastatic calcifications are seen in :
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Hypercalcemia
D. All of the above
Cellular swelling and fatty change are example of :
A. Reversible injury
B. Irreversible injury
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Pyknosis is characterized by :
A. Nuclear basophilic
B. Nuclear shrinkage
C. Nucleus disintegration
D. Nucleolus disintegration
Maltory’s degeneration seen in alcoholic liver disease is a form of :
A. Hyaline degeneration
B. Amyloid degeneration
C. Hydronic degeneration
D. Fatty degeneration
Synthesis of DNA occurs in which phase :
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
Caseation necrosis is suggestive of :
A. Tuberculosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Leprosy
D. Midline lethal granuloma
Apoptosis is suggestive of :
A. Liquefaction degeneration
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Neo angiogenesis
D. Epithelial dysplasia
Secondary amyloidosis is seen most commonly in :
A. Actinomycosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Rabies
D. Secondary
The dominant histologic feature of infarction is :
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Chronic inflammation
D. Scar tissue
A reduction in the total leucocyte count is called :
A. Leucocytosis
B. Leucopoenia
C. Leucorrhoea
D. Leukaemia
In haemophilic patient which of the following should not be given :
A. Factor VIII concentrate
B. Cryoprecipitate
C. EACA
D. Platelet factor
Pernicious anaemia is associated with the deficiency of :
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B12
Gingiva are enlarged in leukemic because of :
A. Capillary dilation
B. Erythrocyte engorgement
C. Edema
D. WBC infiltration
In leucopoenia, which cell type is predominantly involved ?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Granulocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
Haemophilia :
A. Affects males and females equally
B. Increased clotting time in all patients
C. Nerve blocks can be given safely
D. Is a congenital disorder
In iron deficiency anaemia there is :
A. Decrease in haemoglobin
B. Increase in haemoglobin
C. Increase in platelets
D. Decrease in platelets
Both beta chains of haemoglobin are abnormal in :
A. Heterozygous sickle cell trait
B. Thalassemia major
C. Homozygous sickle cell anaemia
D. Megaloblastic anaemia
Christmas disease is due to deficiency of :
A. Factor IX
B. Factor X
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor V
Hyper segmented neutrophils are seen in :
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Thalassemia
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic
Which of the following is commonly involved in multiple myeloma :
A. Clavicle
B. Vertebrae
C. Pelvis
D. Lungs
In Hodgkin’s disease the lymphoid cells seen are :
A. Eosinophilic
B. Plasma cells
C. Reed-Sternberg cells
D. Giant cells
In megaloblastic anaemia the cells are :
A. Macrocytic hyperchromic
B. Macrocytic hypochromic
C. Macrocytic normochromic
D. None of the above
Bence jones proteins are associated with :
A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis
Which of the following is a haemolytic anaemia :
A. Sickle cell anaemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. All of the above
Normocytic, Normochromic anaemia is seen in :
A. Haemolytic anaemia
B. chronic disease
C. Acute blood loss
D. All of the above
Reliable screening test for haemophilia is :
A. APTT
B. BT
C. PT
D. CBP
Tourniquet test is function of :
A. Platelet function
B. capillary fragility
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Extrinic pathway
Haemophilia is best treated by :
A. dried freeze plasma
B. factor VIII concentrate
C. Whole blood
D. cryoprecipitate
Increase in number of RBC is seen in :
A. Neutropenia
B. Leukemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Anaemia
Intrinsic factor for absorption of Vit B12 secreted in :
A. Duodenum
B. Stomach
C. Intestine
D. Ileum
Aplastic anaemia results from :
A. Cytotoxic drugs
B. Whole body irradiation
C. HIV infection
D. All of the above
Osteomalacia is associated with :
A. Decrease in osteoid volume
B. Decrease in osteoid surface
C. Increase in osteoid maturation time
D. Increase in mineral apposition rate
Amyloid material can be best diagnosed by :
A. Polarized microscopy
B. Electron microscopy
C. X-ray crystallography
D. Scanning electron microscopy
Thrombocytosis is seen in :
A. Osteopetrosis
B. DIsseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Thiazide therapy
In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involved are :
A. Right axillary nodes
B. Left axillary nodes
C. Right supraclavicular nodes
D. Left supraclavicular nodes
Schilling test is performed to find out :
A. Folic acid level
B. B12 malabsroption
C. Pancreatic enzyme deficiency
D. Coronary artery disease
Arget cells are seen in peripheral blood in :
A. Thalassemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
Which of the following is not an example of massive splenomegaly :
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia
B. Chronic malaria
C. Tropical splenomegaly
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Sideroblastic anemia is caused due to :
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Arsenic
D. Iron
Hemophilia A is caused due to deficiency of :
A. Factor X
B. Factor XI
C. Factor IX
D. Factor VIII
IN fanconi anemia there is a :
A. Deficiency of copper
B. Mutation of DNA repair gene
C. No increased risk of Sq. cell carcinoma
D. Purely nutritional disorder aetiology
Prothrombin time indicates the integrity of :
A. Intrinsic pathway
B. Extrinsic pathway
C. Capillary function
D. All of the above
The following are recognized causes of neutropenia Except :
A. Corticosteroid therapy
B. Typhoid fever
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Viral infection
Increased bleeding time is seen in all except :
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Von Willebrand disease
C. Haemophilia
D. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
A shift to left indicates an increase in number of :
A. immature neutrophils
B. erythrocytes
C. matures neutrophils
D. Platelets
Deposition of bile pigment in the basal ganglia is called :
A. jaundice
B. Kernicterus
C. Haemosiderosis
D. All of the above
Sickle cell anaemia precipitates when :
A. Oxygen tension goes down
B. Increased viscosity of blood
C. There is dehydration
D. All of the above
Auto immune hymolytic anaemia is seen in :
A. AML
B. CML
C. CLL
D. ALL
The fading of cellular chromatin is :
A. Karyolysis
B. Karyorrhexis
C. Pyknosis
D. Cytolysis
In sickle cell anaemia there is :
A. 75 to 100% haemoglobins
B. 10 to 20% haemoglobins
C. 20 to 30% haemoglobins
D. 50 to 60% haemoglobins
Primary haemostasis is disturbed in :
A. Platelet disorder
B. Lupus anticoagulant
C. Haemophilia
D. Liver disease
Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in :
A. Aplastic anaemia
B. Cancer chemotherapy
C. Acute leukaemia
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Edema is due to :
A. Increased albumin in blood
B. Decreased albumin conc. in blood
C. Increased osmotic pressure
D. None of the above
In hypovolemic shock :
A. The central venous pressure ins high
B. The extremities are pale, cold and sweating
C. There is always s site of bleeding
D. Urine output is unaffected
Hypovolemic shock develops after loss of :
A. 10% blood
B. 20% blood
C. 30% blood
D. 40% blood
Heart failure cells are :
A. Fibrocytes in myocardium
B. Aschoji’s giant cells
C. Hemosiderin laden macrophages in alveoli
D. Hypertrophic myocardial fibres
Nut meg liver occurs in :
A. Jaundice
B. Chronic venous congestion
C. Cirrhosis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
In a thrombus, the dark lines of zahn are due to :
A. Coagulated fibrin
B. Aggregated proteins
C. Aggregated platelets
D. Aggregated R.B.C
Caissons disease is caused by :
A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. Hyper coagulability
C. Air or gas embolism
D. Tumour embolism
An infarct is most frequently is characterized by What type of necrosis ?
A. Fatty
B. Caseous
C. Gangrenous
D. Coagulative
Active hyperemia is seen in :
A. Muscles during exercise
B. Inflammation
C. Blushing
D. All of the Above
Which of the following predisposes to thrombogenesis ?
A. Endothelial injury
B. Stasis of blood
C. Turbulence of blood
D. All of the above
Extravasation of blood in to the tissues with resulting swelling is called :
A. Hemothorax
B. Heamoperitonium
C. Heamopericardium
D. Hematoma
Which of the following is not an indicative of haemorrhage :
A. Ecchymosis
B. Malena
C. Melanosis
D. Petechiae
Both Pala or red infarcts are seen in :
A. Lung
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Spleen
Major site of atherosclerosis :
A. Coronary artery
B. Abdominal aorta
C. Thoracic aorta
D. Internal carotid artery
Risk factor for atherosclerosis :
A. Smoking
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. All of the above
White infarcts occurs in one of the following organs :
A. Ovary
B. Lung
C. Intestine
D. Heart
Infarcts are not common in :
A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Kidney
D. Both A and B
Venous emboli are most often lodged in :
A. Intestines
B. Lungs
C. Kidneys
D. Heart
The infarct of the following organs is invariably haemorrhagic :
A. Kidney
B. Lung
C. Spleen
D. Heart
Earliest lesion in atherosclerosis is :
A. Atheroma
B. Fatty streak
C. Fibrous plaque
D. None of the above
Pale infarcts are seen in all of the following except :
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Spleen
Left side heart failure results in :
A. Oedema of lungs
B. Oedema of spleen
C. Oedema of legs
D. Oedema of liver
Major and frequent influence for thrombus formation is :
A. Alteration in blood flow
B. Hypercoagulability
C. Endothelial damage
D. Fatty streak
Heart failure cells are seen in :
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Kidney
In haemorrhage lost plasma is replaced by :
A. Bone marrow
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Muscle
The type of embolism seen in fractures of long bones :
A. Thrombo embolism
B. Air embolism
C. Fat embolism
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
The commonest site of thrombosis is :
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capilaries
D. Heart
Which of the following being is the most frequent site of thrombus ?
A. Veins of lower extremities
B. Portal vein
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Hepatic vein
Gamma gandy bodies are seen in :
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Lung
In left ventricular cardiac failure there is :
A. Passive Congestion in lungs
B. Passive congestion in liver
C. Active hyperemia in lungs
D. None of the above
The most definite feature of a malignant tumour is :
A. Haemorrhage
B. Increased mitoses
C. Metastasis
D. Necrosis
The increase in size of individual cells is referred as :
A. Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Hypodontia
D. Differentiation
Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with the proliferation of :
A. T- cell
B. B – cell
C. Lymph vessels
D. Lymph nodes
Philadelphia chromosome is consistently found in :
A. AML
B. CLL
C. CML
D. All of the above
All of the following viruses are capable of causing human cancers except :
A. papilloma virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Parvovirus B-19
Somatic mutation of PTEN is seen in :
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Carcinoma breast
D. Endometrial Carcinoma
The most common site of metastases of osteosarcoma is :
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Lung
One of the following is not a malignant feature :
A. Aplasia
B. Anaplasia
C. Abnormal mitosis
D. Pleomorphism
The increase in size of uterus during pregnancy is an example of :
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Cotton wool appearance is seen :
A. Pagets disease
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Achondroplasia
Sunburst appearance and codmans triangle are seen in :
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Osteoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. None of the above
Change in structure and functions of a tissue is called :
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Anaplasia
D. Aplasia
Neoplasia of blood vessel is called :
A. Angioma
B. Hematoma
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Papilloma
Increased proliferation of cells is called :
A. Hypertrophy
B. Atrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia
Carcinogens induce tumours, they are :
A. Chemicals
B. Radiation
C. Viruses
D. All of the above
Most tumours are :
A. Biclonal in origin
B. Monoclonal in origin
C. Multiclonal in origin
D. None of the above
Rodent ulcer is most commonly seen on :
A. Face below altarages line
B. Face above altarages line
C. Anywhere on hairless skin
D. All of the above
The predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma :
A. Solar keratosis
B. Chronic ulcers
C. Leukoplasia
D. All of the above
Tumour arising from secretory and glandular epithelium are :
A. Adenomas
B. Adenosarcomas
C. Angiomas
D. Both A and B
Immune response to tumour is mediated by :
A. Cytotoxic T – lymphocytes
B. Natural killer cells
C. Humoral mechanism
D. All of the above
Which of the following has least capacity for regeneration :
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Neurons
D. All of the above
The cells which do not undergo mitotic divisions :
A. Smooth muscle cells
B. Endothelial cells
C. Bone marrow cells
D. Neurons
Incomplete fractures of the bone are called :
A. Commented fracture
B. Compound fracture
C. Simple fracture
D. Green stick fracture
Bony union taking place with formation of medullary callus without periosteal callus formation is :
A. Primary union
B. Secondary union
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
All of the following promotes wound healing except :
A. Protein
B. Steroids
C. Vitamin C
D. Adequate oxygen supply
Essential granulation tissue constituents include all except :
A. Fibroblast
B. Macrophages
C. Polymorphs
D. Budding blood vessels
Factors influencing wound healing are the following :
A. Nutrition
B. Adequate blood supply
C. Size and location of wound
D. All of the above
The first even in primary wound healing :
A. Epithelial changes
B. Organization
C. Formation of blood cloth
D. Acute inflammatory response
Epitheloid cells are seen in all of the following except :
A. Tuberculosis
B. Granulation tissue
C. Syphilis
D. Sarcoidosis
Some micro organisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of :
A. Coagulase
B. Peroxidase
C. Bradykinin
D. Hyaluronidase
Component of tubercle bacilli which produce granuloma is :
A. Surface glycolipids
B. Sulfatide
C. Hetero polysaccharide
D. Sulfadase
Difference in transudate & exudate is that the former has a :
A. Low protein
B. Cloudy appearance
C. Increased specific gravity
D. High protein
The predominant cells after 48 hours of inflammation are :
A. Monocytes
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophils
D. A and B
Lymphocytosis is seen in :
A. Fungal infections
B. Viral infections
C. Bacterial infections
D. Protozoal infections
Highly infection stage of syphilis :
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tetriary
D. Congenital
Example of ganulomatous inflammation :
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Leprosy
C. Tuberculosis
D. All of the above
Inflammation is characterized by :
A. Transudation -> exudation -> oedena
B. Oedema -> exudation
C. Exudation -> transudation -> oedema
D. Only by exudation -> oedema
Kviem’s test is diagnostic test for :
A. Actinomycosis
B. Diphtheria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Which of the bacteria resembles fungus :
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Actinomyces israeli
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. All of the above
Enzymes responsible for suppuration are derived chiefly from :
A. PMN’s
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils
Serum sickness syndrome is :
A. A transplant immunity
B. An anaphylactic shock
C. Systemic arthus reaction
D. None of the above
Lepra cells seen in leprosy are :
A. Lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Vacuolated Histocytes
D. Neutrophils
Function of hepatic kupffer cells is :
A. Formation of sinusoids
B. Vitamin-A storage
C. Increases blood perfusion
D. Phagocytosis
The process of phagocytosis was discovered by :
A. Celsus
B. Elie Metchnikoff
C. Virchow
D. None of the above
Ghon complex of the lung usually :
A. Undergoes cavitation
B. Undergoes calcification
C. Progresses to tuberculous pneumonia
D. Progresses to military tuberculosis
Ghon focus is associated with :
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. AIDS
D. Tuberculosis
The specific gravity of transudate is :
A. Below 1.0.10
B. Below 1.012
C. Between 1.012 and 1.020
D. Above 1.020
Earliest transient change following tissue injury :
A. Neutrophilia
B. Neutropenia
C. Monocytoses
D. Lymphocytoses
Lipofuschin is an insoluble endogenous pigment, also known as :
A. Lipochrome
B. Wear and tear pigment
C. Aging pigment
D. All of the above
Virchow Lepra cells are seen in :
A. Tuberculoid leprosy
B. Ideterminate leprosy
C. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
D. lepromatous leprosy
Bradykinin causes all the following except :
A. Smooth muscle contraction
B. Dilatation of blood vessels
C. Pain
D. Opsonisation
An acute inflammatory focus would attract :
A. Monocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
Tissue macrophages are called :
A. Kupffer cells in liver
B. Microglial cells in nervous system
C. Histiocytes in connective tissues
D. All of the above
Anaphylatoxins are :
A. C3a, C5a
B. C3b, C5a
C. C2, C3
D. C3b, C5b
Which of the following is not a mediator of inflammation :
A. Interferon
B. Prostaglandins
C. TNF
D. Myeloperoxidase
An acute inflammation would attract :
A. Monocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils
Disappearance of nuclear chromatin is called as :
A. Pyknosis
B. Karyolysis
C. Karyorhexis
D. None
Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking :
A. Coronary arteries
B. Cerebral arteries
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. Renal arteries
Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukaemia is :
A. Plummer Vinson syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Sturge weber syndrome
D. Multiple hamartoma syndrome
Leucopoenia is characteristic of :
A. Appendicitis
B. Enteric fever
C. Meningitis
D. Myocardial infarction
Barr body is associated with :
A. Metaphase
B. Interphase
C. Anaphase
D. Prophase
Tha gene for Breast Cancer (BRCA) is present on chromosome :
A. 21
B. 17
C. 15
D. 9
Which of the following is not present in lungs ?
A. Clara cells
B. Langerhans cells
C. Brush cells
D. Klutischky cells
Which of the following is most common location of intracranial Neurocysticercosis?
A. Brain parenchyma
B. Spinal card
C. Basal cisternae
D. Medulla oblongata
All of the following types of collagen except one are present in cartliage :
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
Which is associated with defect in DNA repair :
A. Xeroderma pigmentosum
B. Albinism
C. Ichthyosis
D. Sickle cell anaemia
Prostate specific antigen is used as :
A. Tumor marker
B. Proto oncogene
C. Oncogene
D. Bacterial antigen
DiGeorge’s syndrome is due to :
A. Congenital thymic aplasia
B. Deficiency of complement factor
C. Inborn error of metabolism
D. Chromosomal anomaly
Endotoxin shock is propagated :
A. Endothelial injury
B. Peripheral vasodilation
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Cytokine action
A haemophilia person has married to a normal woman Then his :
A. Daughter are carrier
B. Sons are infected
C. Daughter are infected
D. All are normal
Tumour involving epiphysis of long bone is :
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Osteoclastoma
C. Ewings sarcoma
D. Chondro sarcoma
Not sequelae of cellular events in atherosclerotic infarction :
A. Neutrophilic infiltration
B. Astrocytes
C. Ingress of macrophages
D. Intense eosinophilia
Egg shell calcification of Hilar Lymph node is associated with :
A. Silicosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Byssinosis
D. Anthracosis
Which one of the following does not present antigens ?
A. NK cells (Netural killer cells)
B. Dendritic cells
C. Langerhan’s cells
D. Macrophages
Following is used to stain fungi :
A. PAS
B. Fontana stain
C. Ferrous trichrome
D. Pearls Prussian blue
Most common cause of pulmonary embolism ?
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Endarteritis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Lymphangitis
Fibrin degradation product help in detection of :
A. haemophilia
B. DIC
C. Thrombocytopenic purpura
D. Thrombasthenia
HOX gene is responsible for which malformation :
A. Polysyndactyly
B. Holoprosencephaly
C. Mayer Rokitansky syndrome
D. Gorlin syndrome
Daily loss of iron per day in a healthy adult male is :
A. 0.06 mg
B. 0.6 mg
C. 60 mg
D. 600 mg
Heterozygous sickle cell anaemia gives protection against :
A. G6PD
B. Malaria
C. Thalassemia
D. Dengue fever
Mural thrombi are thrombi in :
A. Heart chamber
B. Valve cusp
C. Vein
D. Arteries
Beta 2 agonist causes :
A. Mydriasis
B. Contraction of urinary spinctors
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Bronchial muscle relaxation
The following drugs are avoided with warfarin :
A. Antacids
B. Benzodiazepine
C. Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen
D. Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol
The drug of choice in the management of life threatening allergic reaction is :
A. Corticosteroids
B. Antihistamines
C. Adrenalin
D. Diazepam
The drug which is used to treat laryngospasm is :
A. Atropine
B. Diazepam
C. Neostigmine
D. Succinylcholine
Pilocarpine :
A. Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma
B. Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase
C. Inhibits sweat and lacrimation
D. Causes tachycardia
The antidote for heparin is :
A. Penicillinase
B. Protamine sulphate
C. Pyrosulphate
D. Potassium sulphate
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